ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 110/min.
- B. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F).
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL/hr is below the expected range and indicates potential renal failure, requiring immediate intervention. In postoperative patients, a urine output less than 30 mL/hr suggests inadequate renal perfusion, a concern that needs prompt attention to prevent renal complications. The heart rate of 110/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 18/min are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate issues.
2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?
- A. Check for skin turgor
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Check for dry mucous membranes
- D. Monitor urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.
4. A client has a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with a glass of milk.
- B. I will take my pulse before taking this medication.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
- D. I will take an antacid with this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking metoprolol should regularly check their pulse and should not take the medication if their pulse is too low. Option A is incorrect because metoprolol should not be taken with a glass of milk. Option C is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because antacids should not be taken with metoprolol as they can decrease its absorption.
5. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Oatmeal
- B. Red meat
- C. Bananas
- D. Whole grains
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red meat. Red meat is a good dietary source of heme iron, which is easily absorbed by the body and beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Oatmeal, bananas, and whole grains are not as rich in iron compared to red meat and may not provide sufficient amounts to help manage iron-deficiency anemia effectively.
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