a nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and note the fhr baseline has been 100min for the past 15 minutes the nurse should identify which
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

2. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.

3. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

4. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing oral glucose is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia. Oral glucose helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, making it the preferred treatment for mild hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon (Choice A) is usually reserved for severe cases when the patient cannot take anything by mouth. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice D) is important but providing glucose is the immediate priority to treat hypoglycemia.

5. Which of the following actions is appropriate when administering a blood transfusion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verifying the patient's identity is a critical step when administering a blood transfusion to ensure that the correct blood product is given to the right patient. This process helps prevent errors and enhances patient safety. Choice B, 'Administer medication,' is incorrect because the focus during a blood transfusion should be on ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Choice C, 'Monitor vital signs,' is also important but comes after verifying the patient's identity. Choice D, 'Start blood transfusion without verification,' is incorrect and unsafe as patient identification verification is essential prior to starting any medical procedure, especially one as important as a blood transfusion.

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