Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
• B. Administration of acetaminophen
• C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
• D. Withhold heparin IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis is to withhold heparin IV infusion. Administering heparin is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis by preventing further clot formation. Positioning the affected extremity higher than the heart (Choice A) promotes venous return and reduces swelling. Acetaminophen (Choice B) can be given for pain relief. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications.

3. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the area with normal saline
• B. Apply antibiotic ointment
• C. Use a hydrocolloid dressing
• D. Change the dressing daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.

4. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels
• B. Monitor WBC count
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the WBC count. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in WBC count, which can increase the risk of infection. Monitoring the WBC count is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to clozapine use. Platelet count (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not typically affected by clozapine and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

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