ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
2. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
- B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
- C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
- D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperreflexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to hypotension. Hyponatremia is associated with signs such as confusion and weakness, rather than increased appetite, dry mucous membranes, or hyperreflexia. Therefore, the nurse should expect hypotension as a finding in a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient taking digoxin?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor calcium levels
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor magnesium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Patients taking digoxin are at risk of developing toxicity due to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious arrhythmias. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) is not the primary concern in patients taking digoxin. While calcium levels play a role in cardiac function, hypocalcemia is not directly associated with digoxin toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern in a patient taking digoxin. Monitoring magnesium levels (Choice D) is also essential, but hypomagnesemia is not as directly linked to digoxin toxicity as hypokalemia.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 78/min
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Serosanguineous wound drainage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.
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