a nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

2. A client who has a new prescription for omeprazole is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking omeprazole before meals is important as it improves the medication's effectiveness in reducing gastric acid production. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as it can interfere with its absorption. Option C is incorrect because omeprazole is usually recommended to be taken before breakfast, not at bedtime. Option D is incorrect as omeprazole is generally taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before a meal.

3. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously is to administer the medication within 5 cm (2 in) of the umbilicus. This practice ensures proper subcutaneous delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because a smaller gauge needle, typically 25-26 gauge, is used for subcutaneous injections. Choice B is incorrect as heparin should not be injected into the deltoid muscle but rather into fatty tissue. Choice D is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can lead to tissue irritation or bruising.

5. A client has thrombocytopenia. What action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when caring for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a low platelet count, leading to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, reducing the likelihood of straining during bowel movements and subsequent bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) pertains more to infection control than addressing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (choice D) is not directly associated with managing thrombocytopenia symptoms.

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