Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Dilated pupils.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Sedation
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic medication, commonly causes sedation as an adverse effect. Weight gain (choice A) is a potential side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not specifically associated with chlorpromazine. Dry mouth (choice B) is a common anticholinergic side effect of many medications but is not a prominent adverse effect of chlorpromazine. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of chlorpromazine.

3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should weigh yourself once a week while taking this medication.
• B. You should eat foods rich in potassium while taking this medication.
• C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• D. You should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.

4. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

5. What is the best method to assess pain in a non-verbal patient?

• A. Observe for facial expressions
• B. Observe for restlessness
• C. Observe for sweating
• D. Check for non-verbal cues

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe for facial expressions when assessing pain in a non-verbal patient. Facial expressions can provide vital clues about the patient's pain level and discomfort. Choices B and C, observing for restlessness and sweating, can be less specific and may indicate other issues besides pain. Choice D, checking for non-verbal cues, is too broad and does not specify the crucial aspect of focusing on facial expressions.

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