Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is pacing the hall and is agitated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the client if they intend to harm others.
• B. Tell the client to stop pacing the hall.
• C. Allow the client to pace alone until they feel less anxious.
• D. Walk with the client at a gradually slower pace.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hall and agitated is to walk with the client at a gradually slower pace. This approach can help reduce the client's agitation and prevent the situation from escalating. Choice A is incorrect because directly asking about harm may increase the client's anxiety. Choice B is inappropriate as it may worsen the client's agitation. Choice C is not recommended as the client may benefit from the nurse's presence and support during this time of distress.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following findings indicate fluid overload?

• A. Low back pain
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Hypotension
• D. Thready pulse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common sign of fluid overload in a client receiving packed RBCs. When fluid accumulates in the lungs due to overload, it can lead to respiratory distress. This finding requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A) Low back pain is not typically associated with fluid overload; C) Hypotension refers to low blood pressure and is not a typical finding in fluid overload; D) Thready pulse may indicate poor perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid overload.

3. A nurse is providing education to a client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has gestational diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You will need to increase your protein intake during pregnancy.
• B. It is important to monitor your blood glucose levels closely.
• C. Gestational diabetes can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life.
• D. You will need to avoid exercise while managing your blood sugar.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that gestational diabetes can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life. This information is crucial for the client's understanding of the potential long-term implications of gestational diabetes. Monitoring blood glucose levels closely (Choice B) is also important but does not address the long-term risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Choices A and D are incorrect as increasing protein intake during pregnancy and avoiding exercise are not recommended strategies for managing gestational diabetes.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Provide fluid restriction
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Monitor intake and output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is crucial in managing patients with chronic heart failure as it helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to detect any sudden weight gain, which could indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This intervention helps in adjusting treatment plans promptly. Providing fluid restriction (Choice B) can be a part of managing heart failure but is not the primary intervention mentioned in the question. Administering diuretics (Choice C) is a treatment modality for heart failure but does not encompass the comprehensive approach to patient management. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not specifically address the direct assessment of fluid status as daily weight monitoring does.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 2.0
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. aPTT 60 seconds
• D. WBC count 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

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