a nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indica
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation. Aspirin is a common medication given during the early stages of a heart attack to prevent additional clotting. Administering nitroglycerin may also be indicated to help relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels, but aspirin takes precedence due to its role in preventing clot progression. Administering morphine is not typically the first intervention in myocardial infarction as it can mask symptoms and delay other critical treatments. Surgery is not an immediate priority in the initial management of a myocardial infarction.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

4. A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients prescribed lithium need regular monitoring of blood levels to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. This monitoring helps to keep the medication within the therapeutic range and prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because lithium is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is not directly related to lithium therapy; however, excessive sodium intake can affect lithium levels. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping lithium can lead to adverse effects and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.

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