ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?
- A. Positive Trousseau's sign.
- B. Hyperactive reflexes.
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
- D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.
2. A client with a new colostomy requires care planning by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days.
- B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is half full.
- C. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
- D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and leakage by maintaining a clean and secure seal around the stoma. Option B is incorrect because it is more important to change the pouch regularly rather than emptying it when half full. Option C is incorrect as applying a skin barrier is typically done during the initial application of the pouch, not during regular changes. Option D is incorrect because alcohol can be too harsh for the peristomal skin and can cause irritation.
3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 140/min.
- B. A bulging anterior fontanel.
- C. Respiratory rate 50/min.
- D. Blood glucose 45 mg/dL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is below the normal range for a newborn and indicates hypoglycemia, which can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Therefore, this finding should be reported to the provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 140/min, a bulging anterior fontanel, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are all common findings in a newborn and do not raise immediate concerns.
4. A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has DVT. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1500 mL per day
- B. Avoid massaging the affected extremity to relieve pain
- C. Avoid applying cold packs to the client's affected extremity
- D. Elevate the client's affected extremity when in bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with DVT is to elevate the affected extremity when in bed. Elevation helps reduce swelling by promoting venous return. Limiting fluid intake could lead to dehydration and is not recommended. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction and should be avoided in DVT.
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