a nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indica
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome is to consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and can help reduce symptoms of IBS. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup, and consuming foods high in gluten can exacerbate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in some individuals.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.

4. A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.

5. A client with hypertension is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse on managing blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.' Using a properly fitting cuff is essential for accurate blood pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be individualized and not specified in the question. Choice B is incorrect as checking blood pressure once a week may not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension and complications.

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