a nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypercholesterolemia which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Choose foods low in trans fats.' Trans fats are known to increase cholesterol levels, so avoiding foods high in trans fats is essential in managing hypercholesterolemia. Option A, increasing intake of red meat, and option B, consuming foods high in saturated fats, can worsen cholesterol levels as they are sources of unhealthy fats. Option D, limiting intake of vegetables and fruits, is incorrect as they are part of a heart-healthy diet and should be encouraged for individuals with hypercholesterolemia.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. Orange juice is recommended because of its vitamin C content, which aids in the absorption of iron. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is better absorbed with food. Choice C, taking the medication with milk if it causes stomach upset, is incorrect as calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D, taking the medication at bedtime, is incorrect as it is usually recommended to take iron supplements between meals or with food to enhance absorption.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has asthma and is experiencing wheezing. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator used to quickly relieve bronchospasm in clients with asthma who are experiencing wheezing. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and not for acute wheezing. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma management, not for immediate relief of wheezing. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and not typically used as the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

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