Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?

• A. Oral mucosa
• B. Conjunctivae
• C. Soles of the feet
• D. Ear lobes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.

2. What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise
• B. Fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload
• C. Dietary recommendations, including a low-sodium diet
• D. Medication management, including diuretics and ACE inhibitors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this medication
• B. I will take this medication at the same time each day
• C. I will need to get my blood tested regularly while taking this medication
• D. I should increase my intake of leafy green vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Warfarin therapy requires regular blood testing to monitor INR levels and ensure therapeutic dosing. Option A is incorrect because acetaminophen can be taken with warfarin. Option B is not specific to warfarin administration. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the key monitoring requirement of blood testing while on warfarin.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Report any urine output greater than 30 mL/hr.
• B. Bruising on the arms and legs.
• C. Positive Trousseau's sign.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bruising on the arms and legs is a sign of bleeding, which is a serious complication of heparin therapy and should be reported immediately to the provider. Option A is incorrect as urine output greater than 30 mL/hr is a normal finding. Option C, positive Trousseau's sign, is associated with hypocalcemia, not heparin therapy. Option D, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range and does not indicate a complication of heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

• A. Albumin level of 3
• B. Hemoglobin of 12
• C. Normal skin moisture
• D. No signs of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albumin level of 3. A low albumin level indicates poor nutrition, which can contribute to the development of pressure ulcers. Choice B, Hemoglobin of 12, is within the normal range and is not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Choice C, Normal skin moisture, does not provide specific information related to pressure ulcers. Choice D, No signs of infection, while important, is not a direct finding associated with pressure ulcers.

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