a nurse is assessing a client who has asthma which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.

2. A client has a prescription for vancomycin 1g IV intermittent infusion over 30 minutes every 12 hours. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider for prescription clarification. Administering vancomycin over less than 60 minutes can lead to infusion reactions like hypotension and flushing. Starting the infusion immediately (choice A) is incorrect as it goes against the prescribed rate. Slowing down the infusion rate (choice B) without provider approval can result in underdosing the medication. Checking blood pressure during the infusion (choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this situation.

3. Which action by the nurse will help reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a postoperative patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage early ambulation and leg exercises. By promoting early ambulation and leg exercises, blood flow is enhanced, reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in postoperative patients. Choice B, applying compression stockings, helps prevent VTE but is not as effective as early ambulation and exercises. Choice C, administering anticoagulants, is important in VTE prevention but does not directly address improving circulation through physical activity. Choice D, elevating the patient's legs, may be beneficial for circulation in specific cases but is not as effective in preventing VTE as early ambulation and leg exercises.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.

5. What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.

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