ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?
- A. Oral mucosa
- B. Conjunctivae
- C. Soles of the feet
- D. Ear lobes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.
2. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?
- A. Posting the name of the nurse providing care on a client's communication board
- B. Discussing the client's new medication with a hospital pharmacist
- C. Faxing requested medical information for a client who is transferring to another facility
- D. Emailing the client's positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Emailing client information through an unencrypted server is a HIPAA violation because it can lead to data breaches. Choices A, B, and C do not violate HIPAA. Posting the name of the nurse providing care on a client's communication board does not disclose sensitive health information. Discussing the client's new medication with a hospital pharmacist is a routine healthcare practice. Faxing requested medical information for a client who is transferring to another facility is a secure way to transmit healthcare data.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?
- A. Bladder scan shows 525 mL
- B. Absent urinary output for 1 hour
- C. Cloudy urine
- D. Bloody urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A large bladder scan result (525 mL) suggests catheter blockage and may require irrigation to resolve. Choice B (absent urinary output for 1 hour) could indicate a different issue such as urinary retention but does not specifically indicate the need for catheter irrigation. Choices C (cloudy urine) and D (bloody urine) may suggest infection or other urinary issues, but they do not directly indicate the need for catheter irrigation.
4. A client is being taught about which foods to include in a low fiber diet. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. Choosing a fresh pear would be a good snack option
- B. I should make refried beans for supper
- C. Selecting white rice as a side dish is a good choice
- D. Opting for bran cereal would be a good breakfast choice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because white rice is a low-fiber food suitable for a low-fiber diet, making it an appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fresh pear, refried beans, and bran cereal are high-fiber foods and not suitable for a low-fiber diet.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with dehydration. Which finding indicates the patient's condition is worsening?
- A. Dry mucous membranes.
- B. Tachycardia and low blood pressure.
- C. Bradycardia and shallow respirations.
- D. Clear lung sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tachycardia and low blood pressure are indicative of worsening dehydration in a patient. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased intravascular volume, while low blood pressure reflects inadequate perfusion due to decreased fluid levels. Bradycardia and shallow respirations are not typical findings in worsening dehydration, and clear lung sounds do not directly correlate with the severity of dehydration.
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