a nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm which of the following actio
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking regularly is beneficial for clients with osteoporosis as it helps maintain bone density and prevent fractures. Choice A is not the most appropriate because clients with osteoporosis often require more than just calcium supplements. Choice C is incorrect as weight-bearing exercises actually help strengthen bones. Choice D is important, but walking regularly has a more direct impact on bone health in clients with osteoporosis.

3. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of early decelerations noted during labor with electronic fetal monitoring, the nurse should expect head compression. Early decelerations are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions and are not indicative of fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect as early decelerations are not associated with fetal oxygen deprivation. Choices C and D, placenta previa and umbilical cord prolapse, are unrelated to the scenario described and do not cause early decelerations.

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