Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
• D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

2. A client is 2 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine with a pillow between the legs.
• B. Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
• C. Place a pillow under the client's knees.
• D. Position the client's legs in adduction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and prevents adduction, which could lead to dislocation. Therefore, choice B is the correct action. Choice A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with a pillow between the legs does not provide the necessary abduction to prevent dislocation. Choice C, placing a pillow under the client's knees, does not address the need for abduction. Choice D, positioning the client's legs in adduction, is incorrect as adduction increases the risk of hip dislocation following hip arthroplasty.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
• B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 92/min.
• D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Serum calcium level.
• C. Lymphocyte count.
• D. Serum potassium level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, elevated cortisol levels lead to increased gluconeogenesis, insulin resistance, and breakdown of proteins and fats, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. This is known as hyperglycemia. The other options, including serum calcium level (choice B), lymphocyte count (choice C), and serum potassium level (choice D), are not typically affected by Cushing's disease. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

5. When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall
• B. Apply lubricant and stimulate peristalsis
• C. Apply pressure to the abdomen to assist with the removal
• D. Increase fluid intake before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and is the appropriate method for addressing fecal impaction. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating peristalsis will not directly assist in evacuating the impacted stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen is not the recommended method for stool evacuation. Choice D is incorrect as increasing fluid intake does not directly aid in digitally evacuating the stool.

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