Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
• D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

2. When providing dietary teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine, which of the following foods should be avoided?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Yogurt
• C. Cream Cheese
• D. Fruit Juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Broccoli. Foods high in tyramine, such as broccoli, should be avoided when taking MAOIs like phenelzine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Yogurt, cream cheese, and fruit juice do not contain significant levels of tyramine and can be safely consumed while on phenelzine.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Piloerection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

4. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving insulin therapy?

• A. Monitor blood glucose
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels. When a patient is receiving insulin therapy, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia, a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Monitoring potassium, calcium, or sodium levels is important for different medical conditions or treatments and is not directly related to insulin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

• A. PT 28 seconds
• B. INR 1.2
• C. aPTT 40 seconds
• D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

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