ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Tachycardia (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Dry mouth (choice B) is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia but may be seen in hyperglycemia. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a typical sign of hypoglycemia and is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse
- B. Dispose of the controlled substance by yourself
- C. Leave the controlled substance in the client's room for later use
- D. Document the administration and sign off at the end of the shift
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse preparing to administer a controlled substance is to witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse. This practice is crucial to prevent misuse and ensure accurate documentation. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the controlled substance by oneself without proper witnessing is not in accordance with safety protocols. Choice C is incorrect as leaving a controlled substance unattended in a client's room poses risks of diversion or unauthorized access. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the administration and signing off at the end of the shift is important but does not specifically address the issue of witnessing the waste of a controlled substance, which is a critical step in ensuring proper handling and accountability.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 30 seconds
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which can affect the metabolism and excretion of enoxaparin, potentially leading to increased drug levels and risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is crucial to report a high serum creatinine level before administering enoxaparin. Platelet count, aPTT, and sodium levels are not directly related to the administration of enoxaparin and would not impact its use; hence, they do not need to be reported before starting the medication.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
- A. Urine output of 20 ml/hr
- B. Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg
- C. FHR pattern with absent variability
- D. Contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds indicate that the rate of infusion should be increased. This pattern suggests weak contractions or intervals that are too far apart, requiring an adjustment to improve labor progress. Option A is incorrect as a low urine output is not directly related to the need for an increase in the oxytocin infusion rate. Option B, Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg, is incorrect because it is a measure of intrauterine pressure and does not determine the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion. Option C, FHR pattern with absent variability, is incorrect as it may indicate fetal distress but does not specifically relate to the need for adjusting the oxytocin infusion rate.
5. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is the initial and priority intervention to ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body tissues. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but is not the first-line intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not a standard intervention for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause like dehydration. Repositioning the patient (Choice D) can aid in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress.
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