ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
2. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?
- A. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula.
- B. Encourage oral intake of at least 3,000 mL of fluids per day.
- C. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently.
- D. Place in a prone position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.
3. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of this condition?
- A. Severe dyspnea
- B. Nausea
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to hypoxia. Symptoms of hypoxia include severe dyspnea (A), decreased level of consciousness (C), and headache (D) due to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Nausea (B) is not a typical manifestation of acute respiratory failure and is not directly related to the lack of oxygen in the body. Therefore, the nurse should not monitor the client for nausea as a direct consequence of ARF.
4. A nurse in an urgent care center is caring for a client who is having an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following actions is the nurse's highest priority?
- A. Initiating oxygen therapy
- B. Providing immediate rest for the client
- C. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's
- D. Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority intervention is to administer a nebulized beta-adrenergic medication, such as albuterol, to help open the airways and improve breathing. This action helps address the underlying cause of the exacerbation. Oxygen therapy may be needed but is not the priority over administering the bronchodilator. Providing rest and positioning the client in high-Fowler's are important but come after administering the medication to address the immediate breathing difficulties.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?
- A. Pigeon
- B. Funnel
- C. Kyphotic
- D. Barrel
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
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