a male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism what adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy. Choice C, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a concern when using testosterone therapy in patients with existing prostate cancer, but not a general adverse effect. Choice D, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with testosterone therapy.

2. Hematopoiesis occurs primarily in the bone marrow. What cells are formed during this process?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cells. Hematopoiesis is the process of blood cell formation that primarily occurs in the bone marrow. Red blood cells are one of the main cell types formed during this process. Pancreatic beta cells (Choice A), gastric parietal cells (Choice C), and neurons and glial cells (Choice D) are not formed during hematopoiesis. Pancreatic beta cells are involved in insulin production, gastric parietal cells secrete gastric acid, and neurons and glial cells are part of the nervous system.

3. What symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea on exertion. COPD typically manifests with symptoms like dyspnea on exertion due to impaired lung function. This symptom is a result of the airways being obstructed and the lungs not being able to expel air effectively. Choices B and C are incorrect because in COPD, abnormal lung sounds such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds are often heard upon auscultation, and arterial blood gases are usually abnormal, showing low oxygen levels and high carbon dioxide levels. Choice D is incorrect as COPD is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over 40 who have a history of smoking or exposure to lung irritants.

4. How can a nurse determine the efficacy of a child's mebendazole treatment for roundworm after 3 weeks?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for ova and parasites. To assess the efficacy of treatment for roundworm, the nurse would examine the stool for ova (eggs) and parasites. This test helps determine if the infection has been cleared. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because liver function tests are not commonly used to monitor roundworm treatment efficacy, and colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy as well as rectal swab for culture are not routine diagnostic tests for assessing the effectiveness of mebendazole treatment for roundworm.

5. A 54-year-old man presents with a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a racing heart, fatigue, and an upset stomach after spending an afternoon building a deck on a very hot, humid day. The physician assessing the man is performing a differential diagnosis as part of her assessment. Which finding would suggest fever rather than hyperthermia as a cause of the elevation in the man's temperature?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shivering is a physiological response to fever, as the body attempts to generate heat to increase the internal temperature. Hyperthermia, on the other hand, does not involve shivering. Absence of sweating (choice A) is more indicative of hyperthermia, as the body struggles to cool down without sweating. Lack of thirst (choice C) can be seen in both fever and hyperthermia. Increased heart rate (choice D) can occur in both fever and hyperthermia due to the body's attempt to regulate temperature.

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