Nursing Elites

1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy. Choice C, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a concern when using testosterone therapy in patients with existing prostate cancer, but not a general adverse effect. Choice D, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with testosterone therapy.

2. A patient is starting on a statin medication for hyperlipidemia. What critical instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects.
• B. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast to improve absorption.
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication to reduce the risk of liver damage.
• D. Take the medication with a high-fat meal to increase its effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Statins like atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking the medication with a high-fat meal (choice D) is not recommended as it can decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Alcohol consumption (choice C) should be moderated but does not need to be completely avoided unless contraindicated. Taking the medication with breakfast (choice B) may not be as effective as taking it at night due to the circadian rhythm of cholesterol synthesis.

3. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?

• A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
• B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
• C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
• D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.

4. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
• B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

5. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse emphasize during patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, and redness in the legs, and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a significant side effect of tamoxifen. Choice C is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen but are not as critical to address as venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss in premenopausal women.

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