a common comorbidity in patients with ckd is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Nutrition ATI Proctored Exam

1. A common comorbidity in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Malnutrition is a common comorbidity in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD). This is mainly due to factors such as dietary restrictions, poor appetite, and the body's increased nutritional needs as it struggles to deal with the disease. Liver disease (Choice A) is not typically associated directly with CKD, although both conditions may coexist in some patients. Acute renal failure (Choice C) is not a comorbidity but a severe and potentially lethal progression of CKD. Difficulty breathing (Choice D) is not a comorbidity but can be a symptom of severe kidney disease or other underlying conditions. However, malnutrition is more commonly observed in CKD patients compared to difficulty breathing.

2. What is the initial major sign of acute renal failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is often the initial major sign of acute renal failure. This reduction in urine output indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (presence of protein in urine), and glycosuria (presence of glucose in urine) are not typically the initial major signs of acute renal failure. While they may be present in certain conditions, oliguria is the most common and critical indicator of acute renal failure.

3. What is the role of fat in digestion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Emulsify fats in the small intestine. Bile emulsifies fats in the small intestine, breaking them down into smaller droplets that can be more easily digested by enzymes like lipase. Choice A is incorrect as fats are not digested in the stomach but rather in the small intestine. Choice C is incorrect as fats are transported through the lymphatic system instead of the circulatory system. Choice D is incorrect as fats are broken down into smaller components through emulsification, not splitting.

4. A nurse is caring for an 8-month-old infant who screams when the parent leaves the room. The parent begins to cry and says, 'I don't understand why my child is so upset. I've never seen my child act this way around others before.' Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'This is a normal, expected reaction for a child of this age.' Separation anxiety typically peaks around 8-10 months of age, leading to distress when separated from caregivers. Choice B is incorrect because the infant's behavior is more likely due to separation anxiety rather than overstimulation. Choice C is incorrect as the infant's behavior is not related to overexposure to caregivers but rather a natural developmental stage. Choice D is incorrect as the infant's behavior is not indicative of illness but rather a normal emotional response.

5. Integrated management for childhood illness is the universal protocol of care endorsed by WHO and is used by different countries worldwide, including the Philippines. In any case that the nurse classifies the child and categorizes the signs and symptoms in the PINK category, you know that this means:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a child is classified under the PINK category in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines, it signifies the need for antibiotic management. This category indicates severe signs and symptoms requiring immediate antibiotic treatment to address the underlying infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the PINK category specifically calls for urgent antibiotic management rather than urgent referral, home treatment, or outpatient treatment facility.

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It is not a legally binding document but nevertheless, Very important in caring for the patients.

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