Nursing Elites

1. A common comorbidity in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is:

• A. Liver disease
• B. Malnutrition
• C. Acute renal failure
• D. Difficulty breathing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Malnutrition is a common comorbidity in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD). This is mainly due to factors such as dietary restrictions, poor appetite, and the body's increased nutritional needs as it struggles to deal with the disease. Liver disease (Choice A) is not typically associated directly with CKD, although both conditions may coexist in some patients. Acute renal failure (Choice C) is not a comorbidity but a severe and potentially lethal progression of CKD. Difficulty breathing (Choice D) is not a comorbidity but can be a symptom of severe kidney disease or other underlying conditions. However, malnutrition is more commonly observed in CKD patients compared to difficulty breathing.

2. Each statement is true regarding oral exposure to fermentable carbohydrates, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Longer exposure leads to an increased risk of demineralization
• B. Longer exposure increases the opportunity for remineralization
• C. The Stephan curve illustrates pH changes within plaque after rinsing with a sugar solution
• D. The critical pH at which enamel decalcification occurs is 5.5 or less

Correct answer: B

Rationale: All the statements above are accurate about oral exposure to fermentable carbohydrates, except for option B. In fact, longer exposure to these carbohydrates decreases the opportunity for remineralization. This is because the process of demineralization, in which minerals are lost from the tooth enamel, is sped up by the presence of fermentable carbohydrates. The Stephan curve (option C) is a graph that demonstrates how the pH of dental plaque changes after a sugar rinse, usually dropping (becoming more acidic), which can lead to enamel decalcification. Option D is also accurate, as a pH of 5.5 or lower is the critical point at which enamel starts to decalcify.

3. Which assessment finding indicates effective treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum?

• A. The client's glucose is within the normal range.
• B. The client ate 80% of their breakfast tray.
• C. There is no protein in the client's urine.
• D. The client's blood pressure is 145/75 mmHg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Improved appetite and food intake is an indication of effective treatment.

4. Which mineral is a principal component of cell membranes?

• A. phosphorus
• B. magnesium
• C. iron
• D. iodine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phosphorus is the correct answer. It is a key component of cell membranes, being part of the phospholipid bilayer that provides structure and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells. Magnesium, iron, and iodine do not serve as principal components of cell membranes. Magnesium is involved in various enzymatic reactions, iron is essential for oxygen transport, and iodine plays a role in thyroid hormone synthesis.

5. A client who practices Islam and is currently observing dietary restrictions for the month of Ramadan. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Remove pork products from the dietary plan
• B. Facilitate fasting during daylight hours
• C. Serve meat and dairy items together
• D. Provide a low-carb diet on Fridays

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During Ramadan, individuals fast from dawn to sunset. Facilitating fasting during daylight hours respects the dietary practices of clients observing Ramadan. Choice A is incorrect as the dietary restriction during Ramadan involves abstaining from all food and drink during daylight hours, not just beef products. Choice C is incorrect as Muslims generally do not consume meat and dairy together due to religious dietary laws. Choice D is incorrect as providing a low-carb diet on Fridays does not specifically align with the dietary restrictions observed during Ramadan.

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