a client with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation which intervention should the nurse prioritize
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a pulmonary exacerbation in cystic fibrosis, the priority intervention is to initiate airway clearance techniques. These techniques help clear mucus from the airways, improving ventilation and reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Administering a high-calorie, high-protein diet is beneficial for overall nutrition but is not the priority during an exacerbation. Encouraging an active lifestyle is important for long-term health but does not address the immediate need for managing exacerbations. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is important, but initiating airway clearance techniques takes precedence in the management of pulmonary exacerbations in cystic fibrosis.

2. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

3. A patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of his liver. Adaptation to the reduced size of the liver leads to ___________ of the remaining liver cells.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Compensatory hyperplasia is the process by which the remaining cells increase in number to adapt to the reduced size of the liver. In this case, after the removal of a lobe of the liver, the remaining cells undergo compensatory hyperplasia to compensate for the lost tissue. Metaplasia refers to the reversible change of one cell type to another, not an increase in cell number. Organ atrophy is the decrease in organ size due to cell shrinkage or loss, which is opposite to an increase in cell number seen in compensatory hyperplasia. Physiologic hyperplasia is the increase in cell number in response to a normal physiological demand, not specifically due to the removal of a portion of the organ.

4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

5. Which of the following are characteristic, localized cardinal signs of acute inflammation? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answers are A, C, and D. Redness, swelling, and warmth are classic signs of acute inflammation. Redness occurs due to increased blood flow, swelling is caused by leakage of fluid into tissues, and warmth is due to the vasodilation and increased blood flow in the affected area. Fatigue is not a cardinal sign of acute inflammation and is not directly associated with the inflammatory response.

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