Nursing Elites

1. A student nurse was asked which of the following best describes dementia. Which of the following best describes the condition?

• A. Memory loss as a natural consequence of aging
• B. Difficulty coping with physical and psychological changes
• C. Severe cognitive impairment that occurs rapidly
• D. Loss of cognitive abilities, impairing the ability to perform activities of daily living

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dementia is characterized by a loss of cognitive abilities that impairs the individual's capacity to perform activities of daily living. Choice A is incorrect because dementia is not simply memory loss related to aging but involves broader cognitive deficits. Choice B is incorrect as it does not capture the comprehensive cognitive decline seen in dementia. Choice C is incorrect as dementia typically progresses gradually rather than rapidly, and it is not solely about severe cognitive impairment but also impacts daily functioning.

2. What is the primary action of bisphosphonates when prescribed to a patient with osteoporosis?

• A. It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density.
• B. It stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
• D. It decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density." Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption carried out by osteoclasts, thereby preventing the breakdown of bones and helping to maintain or increase bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bisphosphonates do not directly stimulate new bone formation, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys.

3. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete to increase red blood cell production?

• A. Erythropoietin
• B. Insulin and glycogen
• C. Testosterone
• D. Thyroid stimulating hormone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythropoietin. The kidneys produce erythropoietin to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Insulin and glycogen are not hormones secreted by the kidneys; insulin is produced by the pancreas, and glycogen is a stored form of glucose. Testosterone is a hormone primarily produced by the testes in males and to a lesser extent in females. Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by the pituitary gland to regulate thyroid function, not red blood cell production.

4. Joseph, a 12-year-old child, complains to the school nurse about nausea and dizziness. While assessing the child, the nurse notices a black eye that looks like an injury. This is the third time in 1 month that the child has visited the nurse. Each time, the child provides vague explanations for various injuries. Which of the following is the school nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Contact the child’s parents and ask about the child’s injuries.
• B. Encourage the child to be honest about the injuries.
• C. Question the teacher about the child's injuries.
• D. Report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The school nurse's priority intervention in this situation is to report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities. Given the pattern of unexplained injuries and vague explanations provided by the child, it raises significant concerns for possible abuse. Reporting to the appropriate authorities is crucial to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Contacting the child's parents (Choice A) may not be appropriate if abuse is suspected, as it could potentially put the child at further risk. Merely encouraging the child to be honest (Choice B) does not address the immediate safety concerns. Questioning the teacher (Choice C) is not the appropriate initial action when abuse is suspected; reporting to authorities should take precedence.

5. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?

• A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
• B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
• C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
• D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.

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