Nursing Elites

1. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

• A. HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer, so these risks should be discussed with the patient.
• B. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should undergo regular screening.
• D. HRT decreases the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.

2. What is the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia?

• A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) defects
• B. Monogenic mutations, sedentary lifestyle, and high cholesterol diet
• C. Polygenic mutations and environmental factors
• D. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown.' Primary hypercholesteremia is mainly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor, leading to impaired clearance of LDL cholesterol from the blood. This results in high levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia.

3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

4. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy?

• A. Testosterone therapy increases the risk of cardiovascular events, so regular monitoring is essential.
• B. Testosterone therapy can cause liver dysfunction, so liver function tests should be monitored regularly.
• C. Testosterone therapy can lead to prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Testosterone therapy can lead to bone fractures, so bone density should be monitored.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Testosterone therapy is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient for cardiovascular complications. While monitoring liver function tests (choice B) and bone density (choice D) may be important in some cases, the primary concern during testosterone therapy is the risk of cardiovascular events. Prostate cancer screenings (choice C) are not directly related to testosterone therapy's adverse effects.

5. A healthcare provider is explaining to a patient the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and explains that secondary immunodeficiencies (select ONE that does not apply):

• A. May develop after viral infections
• B. Develop before birth
• C. May develop following immunosuppressive therapies
• D. Are caused by superimposed conditions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statements about secondary immunodeficiencies are that they may develop after viral infections, following immunosuppressive therapies, and are caused by superimposed conditions. Choice B ('Develop before birth') is incorrect because secondary immunodeficiencies do not develop before birth. They are acquired later in life. Therefore, the correct answers are A, C, and D.

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