ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
- A. HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer, so these risks should be discussed with the patient.
- B. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should undergo regular screening.
- D. HRT decreases the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.
2. Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? ________is/are a secondary lymph organ.
- A. The spleen
- B. Peyer's patches
- C. Adenoids
- D. The liver
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'The liver.' The liver is not a secondary lymph organ. Secondary lymph organs are primarily involved in the immune response, such as the spleen, Peyer's patches, and adenoids. The spleen filters blood and is essential for immune function. Peyer's patches are located in the small intestine and help protect against pathogens. Adenoids are located in the throat and play a role in immune defense. Therefore, the liver is the incorrect choice as it is not part of the secondary lymph organ system.
3. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?
- A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
- B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
- D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.
4. A 70-year-old woman has difficulty with driving, and she has been frequently getting lost. Her husband said she has also been acting strangely and seems to want to sleep a lot. He said the other night she kept saying she was seeing animals such as lions in her room. He says her memory is not too bad, but he is very concerned about her health. Physical examination reveals an alert woman with stable vital signs. Bradykinesia and limb rigidity are noted. These findings are consistent with:
- A. Alzheimer's disease.
- B. vascular dementia.
- C. dementia with Lewy bodies.
- D. frontotemporal dementia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB). Hallucinations, parkinsonian symptoms (like bradykinesia and limb rigidity), and fluctuating cognition are characteristic of DLB. Alzheimer's disease (Choice A) typically presents with memory loss as a prominent feature. Vascular dementia (Choice B) is associated with a history of strokes and step-wise cognitive decline. Frontotemporal dementia (Choice D) often presents with changes in behavior and personality rather than the parkinsonian symptoms seen in this case.
5. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Bronchospasm
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access