ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
- A. HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer, so these risks should be discussed with the patient.
- B. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should undergo regular screening.
- D. HRT decreases the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.
2. A 9-year-old girl has a diffuse collection of symptoms that are indicative of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control. She also suffers from persistent fluid and electrolyte imbalances. On which aspect of the nervous system listed below would her health care providers focus their diagnostic efforts?
- A. The thalamus
- B. The pituitary
- C. The hypothalamus
- D. The midbrain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating endocrine and autonomic functions, including fluid and electrolyte balance. In this case, the girl's symptoms of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control, along with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, point towards dysfunction in the hypothalamus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thalamus is mainly involved in sensory relay, the pituitary gland regulates various hormones but is controlled by the hypothalamus, and the midbrain is responsible for motor control and arousal, not endocrine or autonomic functions.
3. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy. Choice C, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a concern when using testosterone therapy in patients with existing prostate cancer, but not a general adverse effect. Choice D, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with testosterone therapy.
4. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?
- A. Urinalysis
- B. Renal ultrasound
- C. Cystoscopy
- D. Intravenous pyelogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.
5. In which disorder does a Staphylococcus aureus organism produce a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Herpes simplex II virus
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Herpes simplex I virus.' This disorder is known as Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), where a Staphylococcus aureus organism produces an exfoliative toxin leading to skin exfoliation and large blister formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Herpes simplex viruses (I and II) cause different types of skin lesions and do not lead to exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe soft tissue infection, while cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that does not typically involve exfoliation and blister formation like in SSSS.
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