a client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium which dietary instruction should the nurse provide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with bipolar disorder prescribed lithium is to maintain consistent sodium intake. Fluctuations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to advise the client to keep their sodium intake consistent to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the lithium therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to lithium therapy. Increasing intake of caffeinated beverages can interfere with the action of lithium. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation for clients prescribed lithium.

2. After fasting from 10 p.m. the previous evening, a client finds out that the blood test has been canceled. The client swears at the nurse and states, 'You are incompetent!' Which is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate response for the nurse is option B. By acknowledging the client's feelings and setting a boundary regarding inappropriate behavior, the nurse addresses the situation with empathy. This response demonstrates understanding of the client's emotions while also maintaining a professional standard by expressing discomfort with swearing. Option A could come off as defensive and may escalate the situation. Option C may be perceived as condescending and not immediately address the client's behavior. Option D, although offering space, does not directly address the inappropriate behavior and misses an opportunity to set a professional boundary.

3. What should the nurse include in patient education for a patient starting on bupropion for major depressive disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients prescribed bupropion should be educated to avoid consuming alcohol while on this medication to reduce the risk of seizures. Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold, and alcohol can further increase this risk. It is important for patients to understand the potential consequences of combining bupropion with alcohol to ensure their safety and treatment effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking bupropion in the morning does not prevent insomnia; it is not associated with significant weight gain; and it is not a first-line treatment for anxiety.

4. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

5. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.

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