Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is having nightmares about the event. The client reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the event during the day.
• B. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol.
• C. Administer a prescribed sedative at bedtime.
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the client's therapist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take is to encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event during the day. This approach can assist the client in processing the trauma in a controlled environment, potentially reducing the frequency and intensity of nightmares. It allows for emotional expression and may promote better sleep by addressing the underlying psychological distress associated with PTSD. Encouraging the client to talk about the event during the day promotes therapeutic processing of the trauma and emotional expression, which can lead to improved coping mechanisms and potentially decrease the distressing symptoms like nightmares. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol may be beneficial, but addressing the emotional aspects first is crucial. Administering a sedative should not be the first approach, as it does not address the root cause of the nightmares. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the therapist is important but should follow addressing the immediate distressing symptoms and promoting coping strategies.

2. A woman was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. When found, she was confused and disoriented. The nurse makes the following observations about the client. She is talking rapidly in disjointed phrases, is unable to concentrate, and is indecisive when asked to make simple decisions. The client's level of anxiety can be assessed as

• A. moderate
• B. severe
• C. mild
• D. nonexistent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's presentation, including rapid and disjointed speech, inability to concentrate, and indecisiveness, are indicative of severe anxiety. These symptoms suggest a high level of distress and impairment in cognitive functioning, which aligns with severe anxiety rather than mild or moderate levels. The traumatic experience of being abducted and raped at gunpoint would likely contribute to such a severe level of anxiety.

3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. I need to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• D. This medication may cause weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Risperidone should be taken consistently as prescribed and should not be stopped abruptly. It is essential to educate the client that discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to a worsening of symptoms or potential relapse. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate understanding of important considerations when taking risperidone, such as avoiding alcohol, taking it with food to reduce stomach upset, and being aware of the potential side effect of weight gain. Choice A suggests a misconception that the medication can be discontinued once the client feels better, which is incorrect and requires further clarification to ensure treatment adherence and effectiveness.

4. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?

• A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
• B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
• C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's symptoms and contributing factors.
• D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to determine which diagnosis to give a patient. The DSM-5 is a comprehensive manual published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) that outlines specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders. It aims to ensure accurate and consistent diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D provide inaccurate information. Hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association does not provide diagnostic labels for mental disorders. Choice C, although mentioning the assessment of patients, does not highlight the specific criteria and guidelines provided by the DSM-5 that psychiatrists use to assign diagnoses.

5. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

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