Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is having nightmares about the event. The client reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the event during the day.
• B. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol.
• C. Administer a prescribed sedative at bedtime.
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the client's therapist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take is to encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event during the day. This approach can assist the client in processing the trauma in a controlled environment, potentially reducing the frequency and intensity of nightmares. It allows for emotional expression and may promote better sleep by addressing the underlying psychological distress associated with PTSD. Encouraging the client to talk about the event during the day promotes therapeutic processing of the trauma and emotional expression, which can lead to improved coping mechanisms and potentially decrease the distressing symptoms like nightmares. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol may be beneficial, but addressing the emotional aspects first is crucial. Administering a sedative should not be the first approach, as it does not address the root cause of the nightmares. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the therapist is important but should follow addressing the immediate distressing symptoms and promoting coping strategies.

2. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Delusions of grandeur
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
• D. Periods of excessive sleeping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.

3. Why is the DSM-5 useful in the practice of psychiatric nursing?

• A. It guides the nurse in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses.
• B. It represents progress toward a more holistic view of mind and body.
• C. It provides a framework for interdisciplinary communication.
• D. It provides a template for nursing care plans.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a crucial tool in psychiatric nursing as it guides nurses in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses of mental health conditions. Using the DSM-5 ensures that diagnoses are standardized, improving the quality and precision of care for clients. While the DSM-5 also supports a holistic view, interdisciplinary communication, and care plan development, its primary role in psychiatric nursing is to assist clinicians in diagnosing mental health conditions accurately.

4. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

5. In a patient with schizophrenia, which of the following symptoms would indicate a poor prognosis?

• A. Auditory hallucinations
• B. Paranoia
• C. Flat affect
• D. Delusions of grandeur

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat affect, characterized by a lack of emotional expression, is often linked to a poorer prognosis in schizophrenia. It can hinder social interactions and affect the individual's ability to engage in therapy or express emotions, thereby impacting the overall treatment outcomes. Auditory hallucinations (Choice A) and delusions of grandeur (Choice D) are common symptoms in schizophrenia but may not always indicate a poor prognosis. Paranoia (Choice B) can also vary in its impact on prognosis depending on the individual and the severity of the symptom.

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