ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) complains of a headache. Which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse?
- A. A headache indicates a serious allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
- B. The client will not have a headache if the nitroglycerin is taken with a high-fat meal.
- C. Nitroglycerin does not cause a headache.
- D. The most common side effect of nitroglycerin is a headache.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause headaches as a common side effect due to its vasodilatory properties. It dilates blood vessels, which can lead to headaches. While a headache can indicate other serious conditions, the most common association with nitroglycerin use is a headache. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this side effect and provide appropriate education and support to the client.
2. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Absolute neutrophil count
- C. Platelet count
- D. Total white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the platelet count to determine the effectiveness of Oprelvekin. The expected outcome for this medication is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Oprelvekin is a medication used to stimulate platelet production, making platelet count a crucial parameter to assess its effectiveness. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not specifically related to the action or effectiveness of Oprelvekin.
3. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?
- A. Antidiuretics
- B. Diuretics
- C. Anticonvulsants
- D. Antidotes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.
4. Which of the following drugs is associated with hepatitis as a reaction?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hepatitis is a known side effect of isoniazid. It is important to monitor patients on isoniazid for signs of liver damage, including hepatitis, as part of their treatment regimen for tuberculosis.
5. A client with brain cancer and headaches is prescribed dexamethasone. What is the purpose of this adjuvant medication?
- A. To decrease inflammation and swelling
- B. To improve concentration
- C. To induce sedation
- D. To treat depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer to decrease inflammation and swelling. It helps reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor, ultimately alleviating headaches. The purpose of prescribing dexamethasone in this case is not to improve concentration (choice B), induce sedation (choice C), or treat depression (choice D). Methylphenidate, a stimulant, is used for conditions like ADHD, not for brain cancer. Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, is primarily used for anxiety and itching, not for brain cancer. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, not specifically for brain cancer-related headaches.
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