Nursing Elites

1. A client presents in the Emergency Department with chest pain. Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause chest pain?

• A. Arthritis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Gastric reflux

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arthritis is a condition primarily affecting the joints and is not known to cause chest pain. Peptic ulcer disease, myocardial infarction, and gastric reflux are conditions that can present with chest pain due to various reasons such as inflammation, ischemia, or reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, respectively.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

3. A client has a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.

4. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer a concentrated solution.
• B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
• C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
• D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

5. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?

• A. Paradoxical Bronchospasm
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Seizures
• D. Vision Loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing. This can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with Albuterol use. Diarrhea and seizures are not typically reported side effects of Albuterol, and vision loss is not a recognized side effect of this medication.

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