Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the unit due to a staffing shortage. Which of the following clients should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
• B. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
• C. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube.
• D. A client who fractured his femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube can be delegated to an LPN as this involves routine postoperative care. Option A involves administering packed RBCs which requires assessment and monitoring for potential adverse reactions, not suitable for delegation to an LPN. Option B requires neurological assessment and close monitoring due to the concussion, which is beyond the scope of an LPN. Option D involves a client with a recent fracture and shortness of breath, which requires urgent assessment and intervention beyond the LPN's scope of practice.

2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

• A. Apply hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Provide wound debridement
• C. Change the dressing daily
• D. Elevate the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.

3. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.

4. While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• B. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Clay-colored stools.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Stridor.
• D. Elevated temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clay-colored stools are a classic finding in a client with cirrhosis. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired bile flow, resulting in pale or clay-colored stools due to a lack of bilirubin in the stool. Hypertension, stridor, and elevated temperature are not typically associated with cirrhosis. Hypertension may occur in cirrhosis but is not a consistent finding, stridor is more commonly associated with upper airway obstruction, and elevated temperature may indicate an infection rather than a direct result of cirrhosis.

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