Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
• B. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension.
• C. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
• D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to detect any bleeding complications and ensure prompt intervention if necessary. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not appropriate as some medications may need to be administered during dialysis. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to the immediate post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not recommended as timing of medication administration should be based on the specific antibiotic and its pharmacokinetics.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.

3. A client in end-stage osteoporosis is reporting severe pain, with a respiratory rate of 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be the highest priority to administer to the client?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe pain like the one described, the priority medication to administer is a potent analgesic like hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is a strong opioid pain medication that can effectively manage severe pain. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not a pain medication. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is contraindicated in end-stage renal disease due to its potential to cause kidney damage. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood sugar level once a week.
• B. I will exercise every day even if my blood sugar is low.
• C. I will eat snacks rich in carbohydrates if my blood sugar drops.
• D. I will avoid sugary foods to prevent my blood sugar from rising.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating snacks rich in carbohydrates is essential to manage hypoglycemia by raising blood sugar levels. Option A is incorrect as monitoring blood sugar once a week is not frequent enough for effective diabetes management. Option B is incorrect because exercising when blood sugar is low can worsen hypoglycemia. Option D is incorrect as it focuses on preventing high blood sugar levels, not managing low blood sugar.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 2.0
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. aPTT 60 seconds
• D. WBC count 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

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