a 57 year old male presents to his primary care provider for red face hands feet ears and headache and drowsiness a blood smear reveals an increased n
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.

2. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What is a key contraindication that the nurse should review with the patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both act as vasodilators, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because having a history of hypertension, using antihypertensive medications, or having a history of peptic ulcer disease are not key contraindications for sildenafil use.

3. During a follow-up visit, a patient being treated for latent tuberculosis mentions inconsistent drug intake. What should subsequent health education focus on?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because consistent intake of prescribed drugs is crucial for curing tuberculosis. By emphasizing the necessity of following the treatment plan, the patient is more likely to achieve a successful outcome. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk of adverse effects rather than the primary goal of TB cure. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the issue of inconsistent drug intake. Choice D is also incorrect as it introduces a different treatment (antiretrovirals) not relevant to latent tuberculosis.

4. A nurse is administering testosterone to a patient with hypogonadism. What outcome indicates that the treatment is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Improved secondary sexual characteristics.' Testosterone therapy in patients with hypogonadism typically leads to improved secondary sexual characteristics, which include increased muscle mass and libido. While increased libido (choice A) and increased muscle mass (choice B) are effects of testosterone therapy, they are more specific outcomes related to secondary sexual characteristics. Decreased sperm count (choice D) would not be an expected outcome of testosterone therapy for hypogonadism, as testosterone is essential for sperm production.

5. A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spoon-shaped nails. In iron deficiency anemia, spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia) are a common symptom due to changes in the nail bed. This condition is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome. While fatigue and weakness are common in iron deficiency anemia, hyperactivity (choice A) is not typically associated with this condition. Gait problems (choice C) and petechiae (choice D) are more commonly seen in other medical conditions and are not characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.

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