Nursing Elites

1. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:

• A. Leukemia
• B. Sideroblastic anemia
• C. Hemosiderosis
• D. Polycythemia vera

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.

2. A patient taking an oral contraceptive missed one pill. What should the nurse teach the patient to do?

• A. Take two pills as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• B. Take one pill as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• C. Skip the missed pill and continue the regular schedule.
• D. Take two pills immediately, then continue the regular schedule.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking an oral contraceptive misses one pill, the correct action is to take two pills as soon as they remember and then continue the regular schedule. Option A is the correct answer because doubling up the dose helps maintain the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Option B is incorrect because taking only one pill after missing one may decrease contraceptive effectiveness. Option C is wrong as skipping the missed pill can also reduce effectiveness. Option D is inaccurate because taking two pills immediately is not necessary; the patient should take the missed pill as soon as remembered and then resume the regular dosing schedule.

3. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:

• A. Inflammation
• B. Maturation
• C. Remodeling
• D. Coagulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.

4. Which ability should Nurse Rebecca expect from a client in the mild stage of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type?

• A. Remembering the daily schedule
• B. Recalling past events
• C. Coping with anxiety
• D. Solving problems of daily living

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the mild stage of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type, clients can often recall past events but may have difficulty with new information. Therefore, Nurse Rebecca should expect the client to have the ability to recall past events. Choice A is incorrect because remembering the daily schedule may become challenging as the disease progresses. Choice C is incorrect as clients in the mild stage may experience anxiety, but coping with anxiety is not a specific ability associated with this stage of dementia. Choice D is incorrect as solving problems of daily living becomes more challenging as the disease advances, not in the mild stage.

5. A patient who is being administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis has a yellow color in the sclera of her eye. What other finding would lead you to believe that hepatotoxicity has developed?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Numbness
• C. Diminished vision
• D. Light-colored stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diarrhea. Hepatotoxicity caused by isoniazid can present with various symptoms, including yellow discoloration of the sclera of the eyes, which indicates jaundice. Another common sign of hepatotoxicity is gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can occur due to liver dysfunction affecting bile production and digestion. Numbness (choice B) is more commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid, while diminished vision (choice C) and light-colored stools (choice D) are not typical manifestations of hepatotoxicity.

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