a 40 year old male client has been hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease he is being treated with a histamine receptor antagonist cimetidine antacids
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Gastrointestinal System

1. A 40-year-old male client has been hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease. He is being treated with a histamine receptor antagonist (cimetidine), antacids, and diet. The nurse doing discharge planning will teach him that the action of cimetidine is to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cimetidine inhibits the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl), which helps to treat peptic ulcer disease.

2. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine.' Diverticulosis refers to the presence of small, bulging pouches (diverticula) that can form in the lining of the digestive system, especially the colon. These pouches are typically noninflamed. Choice A is incorrect because it describes diverticulitis, which is the inflammation of these pouches. Choice C is incorrect as it defines bowel obstruction, not diverticulosis. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a hernia, not diverticulosis.

3. A nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube in an adult client. During the procedure, the client begins to cough and has difficulty breathing. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the insertion of a nasogastric tube, if the client experiences difficulty breathing or any respiratory distress, withdraw the tube slightly, stop the tube advancement, and wait until the distress subsides. Options 1 and 4 are unnecessary. Quickly inserting the tube is not an appropriate action because, in this situation, it may be likely that the tube has entered the bronchus.

4. A nurse is reviewing the orders of a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Select the interventions that the nurse would expect to be prescribed for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to prescribe pain medications such as meperidine to manage the abdominal pain, which is a prominent symptom of the condition. The other options are incorrect because: A) Clients with acute pancreatitis are normally placed on NPO (nothing by mouth) status to rest the pancreas, so small, frequent high-calorie feedings are not indicated. C) Placing the client in a side-lying position with the head elevated 45-degrees helps decrease tension on the abdomen and may ease pain, but it is not a standard intervention for acute pancreatitis. D) Administering antacids and anticholinergics to suppress gastrointestinal secretions is not a routine intervention for acute pancreatitis.

5. You’re caring for Betty with liver cirrhosis. Which of the following assessment findings leads you to suspect hepatic encephalopathy in her?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asterixis, a flapping tremor of the hands, is a sign of hepatic encephalopathy.

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