Nursing Elites

1. You’re patient, post-op drainage of a pelvic abscess secondary to diverticulitis, begins to cough violently after drinking water. His wound has ruptured and a small segment of the bowel is protruding. What’s your priority?

• A. Ask the patient what happened, call the doctor, and cover the area with a water-soaked bedsheet.
• B. Obtain vital signs, call the doctor, and obtain emergency orders.
• C. Have a CAN hold the wound together while you obtain vital signs, call the doctor and flex the patient’s knees.
• D. Have the doctor called while you remain with the patient, flex the patient’s knees, and cover the wound with sterile towels soaked in sterile saline solution.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a ruptured wound and protruding bowel, call the doctor while remaining with the patient, flex the patient’s knees, and cover the wound with sterile towels soaked in sterile saline solution.

2. Which of the following aspects is the priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis?

• A. Fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Gastric irrigation
• C. Pain management
• D. Psychosocial issues

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis is fluid and electrolyte balance to prevent shock.

3. When teaching an elderly client how to prevent constipation, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Drink 6 glasses of fluid each day.
• B. Avoid grain products and nuts.
• C. Add at least 4 grams of brain to your cereal each morning.
• D. Be sure to get regular exercise.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent constipation, elderly clients should be encouraged to get regular exercise, which promotes bowel motility.

4. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

5. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

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