Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect to note if the client indeed has appendicitis?

• A. Leukopenia with a shift to the right
• B. Leukocytosis with a shift to the right
• C. Leukocytosis with a shift to the left
• D. Leukopenia with a shift to the left

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Laboratory findings do not establish the diagnosis of appendicitis, but often moderate elevation of the white blood cell count (leukocytosis) to 10,000 to 18,000 cells/mm3 occurs with a “shift to the left” (an increased number of immature white blood cells.).

2. Elmer is scheduled for a proctoscopy and has an I.V. The doctor wrote an order for 5mg of I.V. diazepam(Valium). Which order is correct regarding diazepam?

• A. Give diazepam in the I.V. port closest to the vein.
• B. Mix diazepam with 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water and give over 15 minutes.
• C. Give diazepam rapidly I.V. to prevent the bloodstream from diluting the drug mixture.
• D. Question the order because I.V. administration of diazepam is contraindicated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method for administering I.V. diazepam is to give it in the I.V. port closest to the vein.

3. An intubated patient is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a Salem sump tube at a rate of 60ml/hr. Gastric residuals have been 30-40ml when monitored Q4H. You check the gastric residual and aspirate 220ml. What is your first response to this finding?

• A. Notify the doctor immediately.
• B. Stop the feeding, and clamp the NG tube.
• C. Discard the 220ml, and clamp the NG tube.
• D. Give a prescribed GI stimulant such as metoclopramide (Reglan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If gastric residuals are high during continuous enteral feedings, the first response is to stop the feeding and clamp the NG tube.

4. Which of the following aspects is the priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis?

• A. Fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Gastric irrigation
• C. Pain management
• D. Psychosocial issues

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis is fluid and electrolyte balance to prevent shock.

5. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

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