ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
- A. Eosinophils
- B. Neutrophils
- C. Leukotrienes
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections. When there is a breach in the skin like in this scenario, neutrophils are quickly recruited to the site of injury to phagocytize and kill bacteria. Eosinophils are primarily involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions, making choice A incorrect. Leukotrienes are lipid mediators involved in inflammation but are not cells, so choice C is incorrect. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and play a role in immune response, but they are not the first cells to arrive at the site of a bacterial infection, making choice D incorrect.
2. Which of the following is an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
- A. Anaphylaxis
- B. Indigestion
- C. Beta cell destruction
- D. ABO transfusion reaction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a classic example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In Type 1 hypersensitivity, allergens trigger an immediate immune response mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This reaction can result in symptoms ranging from mild itching and hives to severe conditions like anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening emergency. The other options, such as indigestion (choice B), beta cell destruction (choice C), and ABO transfusion reaction (choice D), are not classified as Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Indigestion is typically related to gastrointestinal disturbances, beta cell destruction is associated with autoimmune conditions like type 1 diabetes, and ABO transfusion reaction involves antibodies targeting incompatible blood groups, which is a different immune mechanism compared to Type 1 hypersensitivity.
3. Which of the following women is at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?
- A. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of high-risk human papillomavirus
- B. A 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods
- C. A 40-year-old woman who is overweight and has hypertension
- D. A 55-year-old woman who smokes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is a 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods. Obesity and prolonged exposure to estrogen unopposed by progesterone due to infrequent ovulation are significant risk factors for endometrial cancer. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the increased risk of endometrial cancer. Postmenopausal status alone (Choice A), overweight with hypertension (Choice C), and smoking (Choice D) are not the primary risk factors for endometrial cancer.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who is experiencing dyspnea. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Administer a cough suppressant to reduce discomfort.
- B. Encourage the client to lie flat to ease breathing.
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen therapy.
- D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with lung cancer experiencing dyspnea is to provide supplemental oxygen therapy. This intervention helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. Administering a cough suppressant (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dyspnea and can potentially depress the respiratory drive. Encouraging the client to lie flat (Choice B) can worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial in some situations, but when a client is experiencing dyspnea due to lung cancer, supplemental oxygen therapy is the priority to improve oxygen levels and alleviate breathing difficulty.
5. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?
- A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
- B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
- C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
- D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.
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