Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old man has enjoyed good overall health for all of his adult life, but he has been experiencing urinary frequency and dribbling that has culminated in a diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). As a result, the patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When teaching the patient about the potential adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should ensure that he knows about the possibility of

• A. sexual dysfunction.
• B. urethral burning.
• C. kidney stones.
• D. visual disturbances.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect of finasteride (Proscar) that the nurse should educate the patient about is sexual dysfunction. Finasteride is known to cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation disorders. Urethral burning, kidney stones, and visual disturbances are not commonly associated with finasteride use, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.

2. What aspect of this woman's current health status would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?

• A. The woman has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
• B. The woman has asthma and uses inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators.
• C. The woman has a family history of breast cancer.
• D. The woman takes an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Women with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk of developing cardiovascular complications. Oral contraceptives further increase this risk due to their potential effects on blood pressure, lipid metabolism, and clotting factors. Choice B is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators do not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as a family history of breast cancer does not directly contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D is also incorrect as taking an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease does not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.

3. In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

• A. asymptomatic.
• B. acute flare.
• C. the intercritical period.
• D. chronic gout.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.

4. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?

• A. Stand tall, arms at your side, shut your eyes; place the tip of your index finger to your nose.
• B. Hold your wrist in complete flexion, keep it in this position for 60 seconds. How does your hand feel after placing it in a neutral position?
• C. I'm going to tap (percuss) over the median nerve in your wrist; tell me what sensation you feel while I am doing this. Does the sensation stay in the wrist or go anywhere else?
• D. I'm going to tap this tuning fork; place it on the side of your thumb, then tell me what you are feeling in your hand and wrist.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.

5. In a patient with chronic kidney disease and a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL, which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

• A. Iron supplementation
• B. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents
• C. Blood transfusion
• D. Vitamin B12 supplementation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, anemia commonly occurs due to decreased erythropoietin production. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents, such as erythropoietin or darbepoetin, are the mainstay of treatment to stimulate red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is more appropriate for iron-deficiency anemia, not the anemia of chronic kidney disease. Blood transfusion is reserved for severe cases or acute blood loss. Vitamin B12 supplementation is indicated for megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, not specifically in chronic kidney disease-related anemia.

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