Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes, so the patient should be prepared for this side effect.
• C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so the patient should ensure adequate calcium intake.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so the patient should monitor their diet and exercise regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.

2. What is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma?

• A. Infection
• B. Allergic reaction
• C. Excessive exercise
• D. High altitude

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An allergic reaction is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients. When individuals with asthma come in contact with allergens like pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, it can lead to an allergic reaction that triggers bronchospasm. Infections, excessive exercise, and high altitudes can exacerbate asthma symptoms, but they are not the most common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients.

3. Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) often causes which of the following?

• A. Colon cancer
• B. Hiatal hernia
• C. Peptic ulcer disease
• D. Esophageal varices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium known to cause peptic ulcer disease by weakening the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum, leading to inflammation and ulcers. While chronic H. pylori infection is a risk factor for stomach cancer, it is not directly linked to colon cancer (Choice A), hiatal hernia (Choice B), or esophageal varices (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is C.

4. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?

• A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
• B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
• C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
• D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.

5. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?

• A. Insulin therapy
• B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Thiazolidinediones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.

Similar Questions