Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes, so the patient should be prepared for this side effect.
• C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so the patient should ensure adequate calcium intake.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so the patient should monitor their diet and exercise regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.

2. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

• A. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones
• B. Weight and measurement of blood pressure
• C. Hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement
• D. Deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Hypertensive crisis
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.

4. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Kidney function tests
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, monitoring liver function tests is essential due to the potential for liver dysfunction. Estradiol can affect liver function, making it crucial to monitor enzyme levels. Choice A, blood glucose levels, is not directly impacted by estradiol therapy, making it an incorrect choice. Choice C, kidney function tests, is not typically affected by estradiol therapy, so it is not the priority for monitoring. Choice D, blood pressure, is also not the primary parameter to monitor during estradiol therapy unless there are pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with an altered level of consciousness and needs to assess the withdrawal reflex. Which action should the healthcare provider perform?

• A. Apply a painful stimulus to see if the client pulls away.
• B. Check for pupil response to light.
• C. Assess the client's response to verbal commands.
• D. Observe the client's reaction to a cold stimulus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is assessed by applying a painful stimulus and observing if the client pulls away. This response indicates a functioning reflex arc. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve testing the withdrawal reflex specifically. Checking for pupil response to light assesses the pupillary reflex, assessing the client's response to verbal commands evaluates their cognitive function, and observing the client's reaction to a cold stimulus tests for a different type of sensory response.

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