Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes, so the patient should be prepared for this side effect.
• C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so the patient should ensure adequate calcium intake.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so the patient should monitor their diet and exercise regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.

2. Peritonitis is a condition that can result in serious complications. Identify one of the complications.

• A. Increased peristalsis
• B. Dizziness and malaise
• C. Sepsis and shock
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Peritonitis can lead to severe complications such as sepsis and shock due to the infection spreading in the abdominal cavity. Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection, and shock is a life-threatening condition where the body's organs are not receiving enough blood flow. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased peristalsis is not a typical complication of peritonitis; dizziness and malaise, as well as nausea and vomiting, are symptoms rather than complications of the condition.

3. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

• A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
• B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
• C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
• D. Estradiol (Estrace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.

4. The nurse knows which phenomenon listed below is an accurate statement about axonal transport?

• A. Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport allow for the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the central nervous system (CNS).
• B. Materials can be transported to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components.
• C. The unidirectional nature of the axonal transport system protects the CNS against potential pathogens.
• D. Axonal transport facilitates the movement of electrical impulses but precludes the transport of molecular materials.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Axonal transport involves the movement of materials to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components, which is essential for cell survival. Choice A is incorrect because while anterograde and retrograde axonal transport are involved in the movement of materials, they do not specifically relate to the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the CNS. Choice C is incorrect because the unidirectional nature of axonal transport does not primarily function to protect the CNS against pathogens. Choice D is incorrect as axonal transport is responsible for the movement of various materials, not just electrical impulses.

5. A patient is administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which of the following adverse effects will result in discontinuation of the medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Jaundice
• C. Fever
• D. Arthralgia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Isoniazid (INH) is known to cause hepatotoxicity, which can manifest as jaundice. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect that warrants immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent further liver damage. Weight gain, fever, and arthralgia are not typically associated with isoniazid use and would not necessitate discontinuation of the medication.

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