ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes, so the patient should be prepared for this side effect.
- C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so the patient should ensure adequate calcium intake.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so the patient should monitor their diet and exercise regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.
2. What is the process of moving air into the lungs with subsequent distribution to the alveoli called?
- A. Ventilation
- B. Aeration
- C. Enclosure vapor
- D. Residual volume
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ventilation. Ventilation is the process of moving air into the lungs and distributing it to the alveoli for gas exchange. Choice B, Aeration, is not the correct term for this specific process. Choice C, Enclosure vapor, is not related to the movement of air into the lungs. Choice D, Residual volume, refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration and is not the process of moving air into the lungs.
3. When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?
- A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
- B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
- C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
- D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.
4. Prior to leaving on a backpacking trip to Southeast Asia, a college student has received a tetanus booster shot. This immunization confers protection by way of what immune process?
- A. Passive natural immunity
- B. Active natural immunity
- C. Passive artificial immunity
- D. Active artificial immunity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active artificial immunity. A tetanus booster shot confers protection through active artificial immunity. Active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies in response to an antigen, providing long-lasting protection. In this case, the tetanus booster shot triggers the student's immune system to produce specific antibodies against tetanus toxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because passive immunity does not involve the individual's immune system producing antibodies; instead, it involves the direct transfer of antibodies from another source (natural or artificial) for immediate, but temporary, protection.
5. Seizures are diagnosed by which of the following?
- A. Electroencephalogram (EEG) and ECG
- B. Seizure symptoms and complete blood count (CBC)
- C. Seizure symptoms and electrocardiogram (ECG)
- D. Seizure symptoms and EEG
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Seizures are most accurately diagnosed by EEG, which measures brain activity. Choice A is incorrect as ECG (electrocardiogram) measures heart activity, not brain activity. Choice B is incorrect as CBC (complete blood count) is a blood test and not used to diagnose seizures. Choice C is incorrect as an ECG (electrocardiogram) also measures heart activity, not brain activity, and is not the primary diagnostic tool for seizures.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access