ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes, so the patient should be prepared for this side effect.
- C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so the patient should ensure adequate calcium intake.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so the patient should monitor their diet and exercise regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.
2. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:
- A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
- B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
- C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
- D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.
3. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM
- D. IgD
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.
4. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.
5. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- B. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- C. Increased risk of bone fractures
- D. Increased risk of breast cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of liver dysfunction. Testosterone therapy can lead to liver dysfunction, including cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis. This adverse effect necessitates monitoring of liver function tests during testosterone therapy. Choice B, increased risk of prostate cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy does not cause prostate cancer but is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected prostate cancer. Choice C, increased risk of bone fractures, is incorrect as testosterone therapy is actually associated with an increase in bone mineral density, reducing the risk of fractures. Choice D, increased risk of breast cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy in males does not increase the risk of breast cancer.
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