the two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug nutrient interactions are
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists are the key members of the healthcare team responsible for monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Clinical dietitians assess patients' nutritional needs and develop appropriate diets that consider medication effects, while pharmacists provide expertise on medications and their interactions with nutrients. Physicians and nurses are essential healthcare providers but typically do not have the specialized knowledge required to manage drug-nutrient interactions, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by personnel ranked E6, E7, or E8 in the military structure. These individuals have the necessary experience and leadership skills to fulfill the responsibilities associated with these roles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because these positions are not specifically designated for Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 personnel in the military hierarchy.

3. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.

4. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

5. Which referral would be most appropriate for the client diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in helping individuals with activities of daily living, ergonomic assessments, and adaptive techniques. In the case of thoracic outlet syndrome, an occupational therapist can provide exercises and adaptations to improve the client's function and alleviate symptoms. Choosing the physical therapist (choice A) may also be beneficial for rehabilitation exercises, but occupational therapists focus more on functional activities. Referring to a thoracic surgeon (choice B) would be more appropriate for surgical interventions rather than initial management. Referring to a social worker (choice D) may not directly address the physical symptoms and functional limitations associated with thoracic outlet syndrome.

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