Nursing Elites

1. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

• A. Physician and nurse
• B. Physician and pharmacist
• C. Nurse and clinical dietitian
• D. Clinical dietitian and pharmacist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists are the key members of the healthcare team responsible for monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Clinical dietitians assess patients' nutritional needs and develop appropriate diets that consider medication effects, while pharmacists provide expertise on medications and their interactions with nutrients. Physicians and nurses are essential healthcare providers but typically do not have the specialized knowledge required to manage drug-nutrient interactions, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid which type of carbohydrate?

• A. Simple carbohydrates
• B. Complex carbohydrates
• C. Fiber-rich carbohydrates
• D. All carbohydrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid simple carbohydrates. Simple carbohydrates can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels due to their quick absorption, which can be challenging to manage for individuals with diabetes. Complex carbohydrates and fiber-rich carbohydrates are generally better choices for individuals with diabetes as they are absorbed more slowly, leading to more stable blood glucose levels. Avoiding all carbohydrates is not necessary or recommended, as carbohydrates are an essential source of energy and nutrients in a balanced diet.

3. The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?

• A. Raise the head of the bed so you are sitting straight up, bend your knees, and swing your legs to the side and then to the floor
• B. Rock your body from side to side, going further each time until you build up enough momentum to be lying on your right side, and then raise your trunk toward your toes
• C. Reach over to the left side rail with your right hand, pull your body onto its side, bend your upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and push down to elevate your trunk
• D. Focus on using your arms, the left elbow as a pivot with the left hand grasping the mattress edge and the right hand pushing on the mattress above the elbow, then slide your legs over the side of the mattress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct method described in option C helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, which is crucial after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion. This technique minimizes strain on the back and promotes safe movement. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that could potentially strain the back, increase the risk of injury, or compromise the spinal alignment, making them less optimal for the client recovering from such surgery.

4. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

• A. “I will brush my teeth with a soft-bristle toothbrush.”
• B. “I will rinse my mouth with Listerine mouthwash.”
• C. “I will swish my antifungal solution and then swallow.”
• D. “I will avoid spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate and worsen the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using a soft-bristle toothbrush may still cause discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can be irritating. Choice C is incorrect as swallowing antifungal solution meant for topical use is not appropriate and can be harmful.

5. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

• A. The client’s BP is 110/70
• B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
• C. The client has a barky cough
• D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering the medication as the blood pressure is within a normal range for a client with essential hypertension. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C suggests a potential side effect of an ACE inhibitor, not a beta blocker.

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