the two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug nutrient interactions are
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists are the key members of the healthcare team responsible for monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Clinical dietitians assess patients' nutritional needs and develop appropriate diets that consider medication effects, while pharmacists provide expertise on medications and their interactions with nutrients. Physicians and nurses are essential healthcare providers but typically do not have the specialized knowledge required to manage drug-nutrient interactions, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.

3. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.

4. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of fat because high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and indigestion. While proteins, sodium, and cholesterol may also need to be moderated for overall health, reducing fat intake is particularly crucial for managing gallbladder issues.

5. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.

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