the two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug nutrient interactions are
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists are the key members of the healthcare team responsible for monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Clinical dietitians assess patients' nutritional needs and develop appropriate diets that consider medication effects, while pharmacists provide expertise on medications and their interactions with nutrients. Physicians and nurses are essential healthcare providers but typically do not have the specialized knowledge required to manage drug-nutrient interactions, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid which medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers. NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which help protect the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in patients with peptic ulcers. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help in symptom relief by neutralizing stomach acid. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to worsen peptic ulcers and are generally safe for use in patients with this condition.

3. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a serious complication. Therefore, this client should be seen first to prevent any potential harm. Choice B may be important, but it does not pose an immediate risk compared to thromboembolism. Choice C is a routine care task that can be delayed, and Choice D, discontinuing intravenous fluid, is important but not as urgent as preventing thromboembolism.

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.

5. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is to help them live as normal a life as possible. This involves managing symptoms, preventing crises, and promoting overall well-being. While options A, B, and D are important aspects of care, the ultimate goal is to enhance the client's quality of life and support them in leading a fulfilling and active lifestyle despite their condition.

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