Nursing Elites

1. When is aspirin most effective when taken?

• A. On an empty stomach with cold water
• B. On a full stomach after a meal
• C. With a glass of fruit juice
• D. First thing in the morning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps in its quick absorption. Option B is incorrect because taking aspirin on a full stomach can delay its absorption. Option C is incorrect as fruit juice may not provide the ideal conditions for absorption. Option D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not ensure an empty stomach.

2. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

• A. 68A30
• B. 68WM6
• C. Physician assistant
• D. 6.80E+21

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Call a code immediately
• B. Assess the client for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Continue to monitor the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for a pulse. In ventricular tachycardia, the priority is to determine if the client has a pulse. If there is no pulse, immediate initiation of CPR with chest compressions is required. Calling a code or continuing to monitor the client can delay life-saving interventions. Therefore, assessing for a pulse is the most crucial step in managing ventricular tachycardia.

4. The client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about diet by the nurse. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
• B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
• C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
• D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea reflects a balanced and healthy choice suitable for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein choice, celery sticks offer fiber and low calories, and unsweetened tea is a sugar-free beverage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they include high-carb, high-fat, and sugary options that are not recommended for individuals with diabetes as they can spike blood sugar levels.

5. A patient with Crohn’s disease is experiencing diarrhea. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?

• A. High-fiber diet
• B. Low-residue diet
• C. High-fat diet
• D. High-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-residue diet is the appropriate dietary recommendation for a patient with Crohn’s disease experiencing diarrhea. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and manage diarrhea by limiting the intake of foods that are harder to digest. High-fiber diets (Choice A) may worsen diarrhea due to increased bulk in the stool. High-fat diets (Choice C) can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms. High-protein diets (Choice D) are not specifically recommended for managing diarrhea in Crohn’s disease.

Similar Questions