Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
• B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
• C. Managing ward or unit operations
• D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.

3. Which instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?

• A. Explain that exacerbations will not occur in the summer
• B. Use nicotine gum to help quit smoking
• C. Wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure
• D. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This is essential in preventing vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures, which can worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is irrelevant and not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also incorrect as sunlight exposure does not significantly impact Raynaud's phenomenon.

4. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Iron-deficiency anemia
• B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
• C. Aplastic anemia
• D. Erythropoietin deficiency anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice A) is more commonly caused by insufficient dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (choice B) is usually due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia (choice C) is a bone marrow failure disorder characterized by pancytopenia (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) rather than a deficiency in erythropoietin production.

5. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

• A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
• B. Erb’s point
• C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
• D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct anatomical position for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis is the second intercostal space, right sternal border. This is where the aortic valve is best auscultated, and the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum.

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