Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

• A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
• B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
• C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
• D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.

3. In which situation(s) can personal health information be disclosed?

• A. Compliance with legal proceedings
• B. For research purposes in limited circumstances
• C. To a family member or significant other in an emergency
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Personal health information can be disclosed in various situations. Compliance with legal proceedings allows for disclosure under specific legal requirements. Disclosure for research purposes is permitted in limited circumstances with appropriate approvals. In emergencies, information can be shared with family members or significant others. Therefore, all of the choices are correct as they represent valid scenarios for disclosing personal health information.

4. What is the correct amount of specimen to collect when collecting a stool specimen for testing purposes?

• A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site
• B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
• C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the
• D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When collecting a stool specimen, the nurse should usually take about 1 inch of the specimen or a teaspoonful for testing purposes. This amount is sufficient for laboratory analysis and helps ensure accurate results. It is important for the nurse to follow the proper procedure for specimen collection to maintain accuracy in diagnostic testing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the correct information on the amount of specimen needed for stool specimen collection.

5. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

• A. High-protein
• B. High-carbohydrate
• C. Low-protein
• D. Low-fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-fat diet is the most appropriate for a patient with a history of liver disease. This diet helps reduce liver stress and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein and high-carbohydrate diets can strain the liver and worsen the condition. A low-protein diet may be necessary in cases of liver disease with hepatic encephalopathy, but in general, a low-fat diet is recommended to support liver function and overall health.

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