Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. The client is four hours post-operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client?

• A. Assist the client in ambulating
• B. Assess the client’s bilateral pedal pulses
• C. Maintain a continuous IV heparin drip
• D. Provide clear liquids to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client’s bilateral pedal pulses is crucial at this point to monitor the perfusion to the lower extremities after abdominal aortic aneurysm repair surgery. Ambulation (Choice A) may be appropriate but should be guided by the assessment findings. Maintaining a continuous IV heparin drip (Choice C) is not typically indicated post-operatively for this type of surgery. Providing clear liquids (Choice D) may not be suitable immediately after the surgery, as the client needs time to recover before resuming oral intake.

3. Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?

• A. Medical-surgical nursing
• B. Obstetric and newborn nursing
• C. Pediatric nursing
• D. Trauma nursing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing. This area of nursing focuses on caring for adult patients with a variety of medical conditions. Obstetric and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas within nursing that are not typically covered in entry-level practical nurse courses, making them incorrect choices.

4. A client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider ordering?

• A. Paracentesis
• B. Chest tube insertion
• C. Lumbar puncture
• D. Biopsy of the pancreas

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. A chest tube may be needed if a pancreatic pseudocyst ruptures into the pleural space, causing a pleural effusion. Paracentesis (choice A) involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically indicated for a pancreatic pseudocyst. Lumbar puncture (choice C) is a procedure to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant to a pancreatic pseudocyst. Biopsy of the pancreas (choice D) is a diagnostic procedure to obtain tissue samples for examination and is not typically done in the context of a ruptured pseudocyst.

5. A patient with Crohn’s disease is experiencing diarrhea. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?

• A. High-fiber diet
• B. Low-residue diet
• C. High-fat diet
• D. High-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-residue diet is appropriate for a patient with Crohn’s disease experiencing diarrhea because it helps reduce bowel movements and manage symptoms. Choice A, a high-fiber diet, can exacerbate diarrhea in Crohn’s disease due to increased bulk and fermentation in the gut. Choice C, a high-fat diet, may be hard to digest and can worsen symptoms. Choice D, a high-protein diet, can be taxing on the digestive system and may not provide the relief needed for diarrhea in Crohn’s disease.

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