Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

3. Determining whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluation. Evaluation involves assessing the appropriateness and effectiveness of care provided to the patient. It helps determine if the care aligns with the patient's current physiological and psychological status. Choice B, Planning, refers to developing a plan of care based on assessment data. Choice C, Implementation, involves carrying out the planned interventions. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step that involves collecting data about the patient's condition.

4. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?

• A. Chewing tobacco
• B. Low-fat diet
• C. Chronic alcoholism
• D. Exposure to industrial chemicals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer due to its impact on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is more associated with oral and throat cancers, not pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is actually considered a protective factor against pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be a risk factor for other types of cancer but is not strongly linked to pancreatic cancer.

5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Ensuring that soldiers are utilized in their MOS'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Accountability.' Accountability involves ensuring that individuals are utilized effectively in their assigned roles, which aligns with the task of 'Ensuring that soldiers are utilized in their MOS.' Personal/professional development (choice B) focuses on personal growth and skill enhancement rather than role utilization. Individual training (choice C) pertains to specific skill development rather than overall role utilization. Military appearance/physical condition (choice D) relates to physical fitness and appearance standards, not role assignments.

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