ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Elevated blood glucose
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Signs of bleeding
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.
2. Which question should the healthcare provider ask when assessing the client for an endocrine dysfunction?
- A. “Have you noticed any pain in your legs when walking?”
- B. “Have you had any unexplained weight loss?”
- C. “Have you noticed any change in your bowel movements?”
- D. “Have you experienced any joint pain or discomfort?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “Have you had any unexplained weight loss?” Unexplained weight loss can be a significant symptom of various endocrine disorders, such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes. Weight changes are often closely linked to endocrine dysfunction due to the hormonal imbalances affecting metabolism. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to endocrine dysfunction. Pain in the legs, changes in bowel movements, and joint pain or discomfort are symptoms that can be related to various health conditions but are not as indicative of endocrine disorders as unexplained weight loss.
3. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?
- A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
- B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
- C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
- D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.
4. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
- A. Collect early in the morning, first voided specimen
- B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
- C. Collect 5 to 10 ml of urine
- D. Discard the first flow of urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The inappropriate action in collecting a midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis is to collect only 5 to 10 ml of urine. Adequate urine volume of 30 to 60 ml is required for accurate testing. Collecting a small amount like 5 to 10 ml may lead to inaccurate results due to insufficient sample size. It is crucial to follow proper collection techniques, such as discarding the first flow of urine, performing perineal care, and collecting an adequate volume, to ensure reliable test results.
5. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?
- A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
- B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) of 7.0%
- C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
- D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Choice A, chronic kidney disease with a serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL, though concerning, does not indicate an immediate need for follow-up. Choice C, heart failure with a BNP of 140 pg/mL, may require monitoring but not immediate follow-up. Choice D, a male client with anemia and normal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, does not warrant immediate attention based on the provided information.
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