ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?
- A. “Do you have trouble sitting for long periods of time?”
- B. “How often do you have a bowel movement and urinate?”
- C. “When you lie down do you feel throbbing in your abdomen?”
- D. “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?” Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, potentially causing sexual dysfunction. The other choices (A, B, and C) are less relevant to the specific effects of aorto-iliac disease on the client's health. While choice A may relate to discomfort, it does not directly address the impact of the disease on sexual function. Choices B and C are more general and do not specifically target the potential issues related to aorto-iliac disease.
2. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Wait until the machine discharges
- B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
- C. Make sure the client is all right
- D. Increase the joules and re-discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.
3. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.
4. The client has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids. Which statement from the client indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. “I should increase fruits, bran, and fluids in my diet.”
- B. “I will use warm compresses and take sitz baths daily.”
- C. “I must take a laxative every night and have a stool daily.”
- D. “I can use an analgesic ointment or suppository for pain.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C indicates the need for further teaching because regular use of laxatives can lead to dependence and is not recommended for hemorrhoids. Increased fiber intake and fluid consumption (Choice A) help prevent constipation, warm compresses and sitz baths (Choice B) provide relief, and using analgesic ointments or suppositories (Choice D) can help manage pain associated with hemorrhoids.
5. During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?
- A. DVA
- B. TOE
- C. TDA
- D. NDMS
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into a TDA (Table of Distribution and Allowances) type of organization. TDA defines the structure and personnel requirements of a unit. Choice A, DVA (Department of Veterans Affairs), is not the typical organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, TOE (Table of Organization and Equipment), refers to the organization and equipment of a unit, not the personnel organization. Choice D, NDMS (National Disaster Medical System), is a federal program that coordinates medical responses to disasters and emergencies, but it is not the primary organizational structure for military hospital personnel during peacetime.
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