ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Elevated blood glucose
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Signs of bleeding
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.
2. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Hepatic encephalopathy
- C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
- D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn’s disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.
3. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
- A. Chewing tobacco
- B. Low-fat diet
- C. Chronic alcoholism
- D. Exposure to industrial chemicals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer due to its impact on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is more associated with oral and throat cancers, not pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is actually considered a protective factor against pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be a risk factor for other types of cancer but is not strongly linked to pancreatic cancer.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.
5. The healthcare provider is conducting a respiratory assessment and is determining respirations per minute. Which factor(s) generally affect the character of respirations? Select all that apply.
- A. Anxiety
- B. Exercise
- C. Smoking
- D. A, B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! Anxiety and exercise can significantly alter the character of respirations, increasing the rate and depth. Smoking, while harmful to the respiratory system in the long term, does not directly affect the character of respirations like anxiety and exercise do. Therefore, choices C (Smoking) is incorrect. The correct answer is D (A, B).
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