Nursing Elites

1. What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.

2. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.

4. During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?

• A. DVA
• B. TOE
• C. TDA
• D. NDMS

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into a TDA (Table of Distribution and Allowances) type of organization. TDA defines the structure and personnel requirements of a unit. Choice A, DVA (Department of Veterans Affairs), is not the typical organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, TOE (Table of Organization and Equipment), refers to the organization and equipment of a unit, not the personnel organization. Choice D, NDMS (National Disaster Medical System), is a federal program that coordinates medical responses to disasters and emergencies, but it is not the primary organizational structure for military hospital personnel during peacetime.

5. After undergoing a pericardiocentesis, which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour
• B. Evaluate the client’s cardiac rhythm
• C. Record the amount of fluid removed as output
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a pericardiocentesis, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor vital signs regularly, evaluate cardiac rhythm, and record the amount of fluid removed as output to detect any complications promptly. These interventions help in ensuring the client's safety and detecting any potential issues early. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' (Choice D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the essential interventions required post-pericardiocentesis. Choices A, B, and C are necessary actions to provide comprehensive care and monitor the client effectively.

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