ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
- B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
- C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
- D. A, B, and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions to include in the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit are monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. These interventions are crucial for managing and detecting fluid volume changes. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and does not address the key aspects of monitoring and assessing fluid status, making it an incorrect choice.
2. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?
- A. Pulmonary embolism
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Hemoptysis
- D. Deep vein thrombosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased urine output. When vegetative lesions from the mitral valve embolize, they can block blood flow to the kidneys, leading to renal infarction. This can result in decreased urine output. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage of an artery in the lungs, not directly related to embolization from the mitral valve. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract, which is not a direct consequence of embolization from the mitral valve. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, unrelated to embolization from the mitral valve.
3. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
- B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
- C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
- D. 10-year-old who is nauseated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.
4. Which of the following grains is acceptable for someone with celiac disease?
- A. Rice
- B. Rye
- C. Wheat
- D. Barley
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Rice. Rice is a gluten-free grain and is safe for individuals with celiac disease. Rye, wheat, and barley contain gluten, which can trigger adverse reactions in individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect for someone with this condition.
5. Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
- A. Evaluation
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Assessment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In nursing care, implementation involves putting the nursing care plan into action. This step includes safeguarding the rights and privacy of the patient and their family by providing care in a respectful and confidential manner. Evaluation (A) is about assessing the effectiveness of the care provided. Planning (B) is the stage where specific interventions are designed. Assessment (D) is the initial step where data is collected to identify the patient's needs.
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