Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions to include in the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit are monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. These interventions are crucial for managing and detecting fluid volume changes. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and does not address the key aspects of monitoring and assessing fluid status, making it an incorrect choice.

2. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

• A. 68A30
• B. 68WM6
• C. Physician assistant
• D. 6.80E+21

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.

3. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in a minute
• B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate
• C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3
• D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure and requires immediate assessment. Choice A is not as urgent as an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse. Choice B, a client with coronary artery disease wanting to ambulate, does not present an immediate concern compared to a potential heart failure indicated by an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable and does not require immediate attention when compared to a potential heart failure situation signified by an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse.

4. The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

• A. The nursing assistant aspirates and measures the amount of gastric aspirate
• B. The nursing assistant elevates the head of the client’s bed 30 degrees
• C. The nursing assistant warms the formula to room temperature
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of aspiration, and warming the formula to room temperature helps prevent discomfort and complications. Choice A is incorrect as only licensed healthcare professionals should aspirate and measure the amount of gastric aspirate. Choice B is correct as it helps prevent aspiration. Choice C is correct as warming the formula can prevent discomfort.

5. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

• A. Esophagus
• B. Stomach
• C. Duodenum
• D. Jejunum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

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