Nursing Elites

1. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body, not urea. Ammonia accumulates due to liver dysfunction, leading to neurological symptoms. Fatty infiltration of the liver may lead to conditions like non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but it is not the direct cause of hepatic encephalopathy. Jaundice is a symptom of liver dysfunction but is not the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?

• A. Preoccupation with calories
• B. Thick body hair
• C. Sore tongue
• D. Dry, brittle hair

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry, brittle hair. Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories (choice A) is more related to the psychological aspect of anorexia rather than a physical finding. Thick body hair (choice B) is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. A sore tongue (choice C) can be seen in conditions like vitamin deficiencies or oral health issues but is not specific to anorexia nervosa.

3. The Practical Nurse Course is a training program conducted in phases that cover what period of time?

• A. 46 weeks
• B. 18 months
• C. 6 weeks
• D. 52 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is typically conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for comprehensive training in various aspects of nursing. Choice A, 46 weeks, is incorrect as it falls short of the standard duration of the course. Choice B, 18 months, is incorrect as it represents a longer timeframe than the typical duration of the course. Choice C, 6 weeks, is incorrect as it is too short for the comprehensive training provided in a Practical Nurse Course.

4. The nurse administers 2 units of salt-poor albumin to a client with portal hypertension and ascites. The nurse explains to the client that this is administered to:

• A. Provide nutrients
• B. Increase protein stores
• C. Elevate the circulating blood volume
• D. Divert blood flow away from the liver temporarily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevate the circulating blood volume. Salt-poor albumin is given to increase the circulating blood volume, which helps reduce ascites by improving fluid distribution within the body. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because salt-poor albumin is not administered to provide nutrients, increase protein stores, or divert blood flow away from the liver.

5. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

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