Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the use of steroid therapy immediately if symptoms develop.
• B. Take diuretics as needed to treat the dependent edema in ankles.
• C. Increase the intake of dietary sodium every day to decrease fluid retention.
• D. Report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Reporting a decrease in daily weight is crucial when managing nephritic syndrome as it can indicate worsening of the condition or dehydration. It is essential to monitor weight changes closely to assess the effectiveness of treatment and the client's fluid status. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy abruptly can lead to complications; gradual tapering is usually recommended. Choice B is incorrect as diuretics should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider to manage fluid retention. Choice C is also incorrect because increasing dietary sodium can exacerbate fluid retention, which is counterproductive in nephritic syndrome.

2. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

• A. Iron absorption is reduced
• B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
• C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
• D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia due to blood loss. Choice A is incorrect because hiatal hernia does not directly affect iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turning over more quickly is not a typical reason for anemia in hiatal hernia patients. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods does not directly cause anemia in this context.

3. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

• A. The client who needs both sequential compression devices removed
• B. The elderly woman who needs assistance ambulating to the bathroom
• C. The surgical client who needs help changing the gown after bathing
• D. The male client who needs the intravenous fluid discontinued

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, making it the priority. Choice B involves assisting with ambulation, which can be done after addressing the urgent need of the client in choice A. Choice C and D involve non-urgent tasks compared to the potential risks associated with not removing sequential compression devices promptly.

4. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
• B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
• C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
• D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.

5. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

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