ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?
- A. Esophagus
- B. Stomach
- C. Duodenum
- D. Jejunum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
2. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Iron
- D. Zinc
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.
3. During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?
- A. “Do you have trouble sitting for long periods of time?”
- B. “How often do you have a bowel movement and urinate?”
- C. “When you lie down do you feel throbbing in your abdomen?”
- D. “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease during the admission interview is about any problems experienced during sexual intercourse. Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, affecting sexual function. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's sexual health in such cases. The other options, such as sitting for long periods of time, bowel movements and urination frequency, and throbbing sensation when lying down, are not directly related to the potential impact of aorto-iliac disease on sexual function. Hence, they are not the most pertinent questions to ask during the admission interview.
4. Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?
- A. Medical-surgical nursing
- B. Obstetrics and newborn nursing
- C. Pediatric nursing
- D. Trauma nursing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing, which includes caring for adult patients who are acutely ill or recovering from surgery. Obstetrics and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas that may not be covered in the entry-level competencies of the practical nurse course.
5. Which of the following is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that provides general and specialized medical and dental care and treatment?
- A. CONUS
- B. MEDCEN
- C. MEDCOM
- D. MEDDAC
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'MEDCEN.' A MEDCEN (Medical Center) is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that offers general and specialized medical and dental care. Choice A, 'CONUS,' refers to the continental United States and is not related to medical facilities. Choice C, 'MEDCOM,' stands for Medical Command, which is an administrative entity responsible for overseeing medical units, not providing direct care. Choice D, 'MEDDAC,' refers to Medical Department Activity, which is a smaller medical unit compared to a MEDCEN and may not provide the same level of specialized care.
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