Nursing Elites

1. The client has failed to conceive after many attempts over a three-year time period and asks the nurse, “I have tried everything. What should I do now?” Which statement is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume
• B. Change the surgical dressing every day at the same time
• C. Monitor the client’s medication levels daily
• D. Monitor the percentage of each meal eaten

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's best response should focus on providing empathetic support and guiding the client to explore further options, such as fertility specialists or treatments. Assessing intravenous fluids for rate and volume is not relevant to the client's concern about infertility. Changing surgical dressing, monitoring medication levels, and tracking meal intake are all unrelated to the client's fertility issues.

2. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

• A. Red meat
• B. Chicken
• C. Fish
• D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.

3. Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?

• A. Identify principles of basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition
• B. Perform basic-level pharmacological calculations
• C. Integrate the knowledge of drug therapy into nursing practice
• D. Identify basic principles of field nursing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Choices A, B, and D are all relevant terminal learning objectives for Phase I, focusing on understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, nutrition, performing pharmacological calculations, and identifying basic principles of field nursing, respectively.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Iron-deficiency anemia
• B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
• C. Aplastic anemia
• D. Erythropoietin deficiency anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by low iron levels, vitamin B12 deficiency anemia by inadequate vitamin B12, and aplastic anemia by bone marrow failure.

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