whenever possible patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are equipped to provide specialized care tailored to military personnel. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not always have the necessary expertise and resources to cater specifically to military-related injuries. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, primarily serve veterans and may not always accommodate short-term care for active-duty personnel. Choice D, field hospitals, are usually set up in temporary or emergency situations and are not designed for long-term care, making them less suitable for patients expected to return within 60 days.

2. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis that necessitate immediate intervention. Choice A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, while important, does not indicate an immediate crisis. Choice B is incorrect as a client on bed rest ambulating to the bathroom is a positive sign. Choice D is incorrect because a decreased pedal pulse in arterial occlusive disease should be addressed promptly, but it does not indicate an acute emergency like a hypertensive crisis.

3. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, making it the priority. Choice B involves assisting with ambulation, which can be done after addressing the urgent need of the client in choice A. Choice C and D involve non-urgent tasks compared to the potential risks associated with not removing sequential compression devices promptly.

4. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.

5. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

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