whenever possible patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are equipped to provide specialized care tailored to military personnel. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not always have the necessary expertise and resources to cater specifically to military-related injuries. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, primarily serve veterans and may not always accommodate short-term care for active-duty personnel. Choice D, field hospitals, are usually set up in temporary or emergency situations and are not designed for long-term care, making them less suitable for patients expected to return within 60 days.

2. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

3. Why are hospital patients at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions because they are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments that increase the risk of such interactions. Choice B is incorrect as hospital routines interfering with medication timing are not directly related to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect as the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not necessarily relate to interactions with nutrients. Choice D is incorrect as shared responsibility for monitoring does not directly contribute to the increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospitalized patients.

4. Which hospital level is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is "GH" (General Hospital), which is a 296-bed facility providing comprehensive care for all categories of patients. Choice A, FSB, is incorrect as it does not denote a hospital level. Choice B, CSH, is incorrect as it does not specify a 296-bed facility. Choice D, FH, is incorrect as it does not indicate a hospital level or capacity.

5. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

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