Nursing Elites

1. The client has recently been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which intervention should the nurse teach the client to reduce symptoms?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals
• B. Explain the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods
• C. Teach the client how to perform gentle perianal care
• D. Encourage the client to see a psychologist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Decreasing the intake of flatus-forming foods can help reduce symptoms of bloating and discomfort in IBS. This intervention focuses on dietary modifications that can positively impact the client's condition. Instructing the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals (choice A) may not directly address the underlying cause of IBS symptoms. Teaching perianal care (choice C) is important for hygiene but does not directly address IBS symptoms. Encouraging the client to see a psychologist (choice D) may be beneficial for managing stress or anxiety associated with IBS but does not directly target symptom reduction through dietary changes.

2. The nurse is preparing to assist in examining a Hispanic child who was brought to the clinic by the mother. During the assessment of the child, the nurse should take which action(s)?

• A. Admiring the child
• B. Taking the child’s temperature
• C. A, D
• D. Obtaining an interpreter if necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a multicultural healthcare setting, it's essential for the nurse to build rapport with the child and family. Admiring the child can help establish trust and comfort. Additionally, since the child's mother brought them to the clinic, it's crucial to ensure effective communication. Obtaining an interpreter, if necessary, is vital for clear and accurate information exchange. Taking the child's temperature, while important in a physical assessment, is not specifically highlighted in this scenario. Therefore, choices A and B alone are not sufficient, making the correct answer C, which includes both building rapport by admiring the child and ensuring clear communication by obtaining an interpreter if needed.

3. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body, not urea. Ammonia accumulates due to liver dysfunction, leading to neurological symptoms. Fatty infiltration of the liver may lead to conditions like non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but it is not the direct cause of hepatic encephalopathy. Jaundice is a symptom of liver dysfunction but is not the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. Which of the following describes the four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation?

• A. It is a problem-focused process of continued nursing care
• B. It is an open-ended process of continued nursing care
• C. It is a circular process of continued nursing care
• D. It is a trial-and-error process of continued nursing care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It is a circular process of continued nursing care.' The four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation in nursing is a continuous and cyclical process. Choice A is incorrect because the method is not solely problem-focused; it involves a comprehensive approach. Choice B is incorrect as it does not capture the cyclical nature of the process. Choice D is incorrect as the method is systematic and not based on trial-and-error but rather evidence-based practice.

5. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
• B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A (HbA1c) of 7.0%
• C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
• D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Elevated HbA1c levels suggest a higher average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months, increasing the risk of complications associated with diabetes. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate follow-up based solely on the provided information. A serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL in a client with chronic kidney disease, a BNP of 140 pg/mL in a client with heart failure, and hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45% in a male client with anemia are within acceptable ranges or do not indicate an urgent need for intervention.

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