ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. When does short-bowel syndrome usually occur?
- A. The longitudinal muscles of the intestine contract
- B. More than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed
- C. More than 50% of the large intestine is surgically removed
- D. Transit time is decreased due to infection or drugs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome typically occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition leads to malabsorption issues due to the reduced length of the intestine for absorption. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because short-bowel syndrome specifically relates to the insufficient length of the small intestine, not the contraction of longitudinal muscles, surgical removal of the large intestine, or decreased transit time due to infection or drugs.
2. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
- A. Chewing tobacco
- B. Low-fat diet
- C. Chronic alcoholism
- D. Exposure to industrial chemicals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
3. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Document that the pericarditis has resolved
- C. Ask the client to lean forward and listen again
- D. Prepare to insert a unilateral chest tube
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. Leaning forward can help bring the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect the rub. Option A (Notifying the healthcare provider) is incorrect because further assessment is needed before escalating the situation. Option B (Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved) is incorrect as the absence of a friction rub does not necessarily mean resolution. Option D (Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube) is incorrect as this intervention is not indicated for the absence of a friction rub.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.
5. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
- C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.
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