Nursing Elites

1. Identifying the strengths and weaknesses in the nursing care plan is part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the patient's nursing care needs?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the nursing care plan by identifying its strengths and weaknesses. This step helps in determining if the plan is meeting the patient's needs. Choice B (Planning) is incorrect because planning involves developing the nursing care plan based on the assessment of the patient's needs. Choice C (Implementation) is incorrect as it refers to putting the nursing care plan into action. Choice D (Assessment) is incorrect as assessment is the initial step in the nursing process, involving data collection and analysis to identify the patient's needs.

2. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

• A. Esophagus
• B. Stomach
• C. Duodenum
• D. Jejunum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

3. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?

• A. Specimen is collected after meals
• B. The nurse puts the Clinitest tablet into a test tube
• C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
• D. If the color becomes orange or red, it is considered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect as the specimen should be collected before meals for accurate results. Choice B is incorrect as it should be the Clinitest tablet, not the clingiest tablet. Choice D is incorrect as the statement is incomplete and lacks clarity.

4. The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. Which is the order of basic CPR?

• A. Ensure the scene is safe, assess responsiveness, call for help, begin CPR with compressions, airway, and breathing
• B. Give two (2) rescue breaths
• C. Look, listen, and feel for breathing
• D. Begin chest compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR is to first ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess responsiveness. Next, call for help and start CPR with chest compressions, followed by checking the airway and giving rescue breaths. Choice B is incorrect as giving rescue breaths is usually done after the initial chest compressions. Choice C is incorrect as looking, listening, and feeling for breathing comes after starting compressions. Choice D is incorrect as chest compressions are usually the first step in basic CPR.

5. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

• A. Red meat
• B. Chicken
• C. Fish
• D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.

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