ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
- B. Remove the patch at night.
- C. Cover the patch with a heating pad.
- D. Apply the patch to a hairless area of skin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the Nitroglycerin transdermal patch to a hairless area of skin. This is important for proper absorption of the medication. Additionally, rotating the patch to different sites each day helps prevent skin irritation and ensures optimal therapeutic effect. Applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation or tolerance development. Removing the patch at night is not necessary as the patch is typically worn continuously to provide a consistent level of medication. Covering the patch with a heating pad is contraindicated as it can increase drug absorption, potentially leading to adverse effects.
2. A client has a new prescription for alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food to reduce nausea.
- B. Take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
- D. Take the medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate should be taken first thing in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize absorption. Taking it with food, milk, or meals can reduce its effectiveness by impairing absorption. Therefore, advising the client to take it on an empty stomach is crucial for optimal therapeutic outcomes.
3. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?
- A. NSAIDs
- B. Cardiac glycosides
- C. Beta blockers
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.
4. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your fluid intake.
- C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol can cause kidney stones due to the formation of uric acid crystals, so it is crucial for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration helps to prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the urine and promoting the excretion of uric acid. Therefore, advising the client to increase their fluid intake is essential in preventing this adverse effect while taking Allopurinol.
5. A client is starting therapy with rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever when starting rituximab therapy. Fever can be a sign of infection, which is a potential complication associated with rituximab. Early detection and treatment of infections are important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication's side effects. Therefore, fever is the most crucial symptom to report to healthcare providers.
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