ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which strategy is most likely to promote positive behavior in children?
- A. Providing flexible instructions with no consequences
- B. Limiting opportunities until the child performs adequately
- C. Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment
- D. Setting strict rules with punishments for misbehavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment is the most effective strategy to promote positive behavior in children. This approach focuses on enhancing the child's skills and abilities while fostering a supportive and encouraging atmosphere. By empowering the child and surrounding them with positivity, they are more likely to exhibit positive behaviors as they feel competent, valued, and motivated. This strategy emphasizes support and reinforcement over punitive measures, leading to long-lasting behavioral improvements.
2. Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?
- A. Bloody urine
- B. One void since returning from surgery
- C. Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
- D. Double diapering from the previous shift
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a postoperative scenario after the placement of a urethral stent, monitoring the child's voiding frequency is crucial. Having only one void since returning from surgery could indicate potential issues like urinary retention, which necessitates prompt nursing intervention to prevent complications.
3. A nurse administers naloxone (Narcan) to a post-op patient experiencing respiratory sedation. What undesirable effect would the nurse anticipate after giving this medication?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Tics and tremors
- C. Increased Pain
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone reverses the effects of narcotics. Although the patient�s respiratory status will improve after administration of naloxone, the pain will be more acute.
4. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120mg PO daily for HTN. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?
- A. �I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning.�
- B. �I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication�
- C. �I�ll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet�
- D. �I must swallow the pill whole.�
Correct answer: D
Rationale: �SR� indicates that the drug is sustained release; therefore, the patient must swallow the pill intact, without chewing or crushing, which would result in a bolus effect. Grapefruit juice should be avoided, because it can inhibit intestinal and hepatic metabolism of the drug, thereby raising the drug level. Constipation, not loose stools, is a common side effect. Increasing fluids and dietary fiber can help prevent this adverse effect.
5. A client has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Steatorrhea
- B. Projectile vomiting
- C. Sunken abdomen
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Celiac disease is a condition where individuals are unable to digest gluten, leading to damage in the bowel cells and subsequent malabsorption. This malabsorption commonly presents with symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is characterized by foul-smelling, greasy, and bulky stools due to high fat content. Projectile vomiting and sunken abdomen are not typical manifestations of celiac disease. Weight gain is unlikely in individuals with celiac disease due to malabsorption and nutrient deficiencies. Therefore, the nurse should expect steatorrhea as a clinical manifestation in clients with celiac disease.
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