ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which strategy is most likely to promote positive behavior in children?
- A. Providing flexible instructions with no consequences
- B. Limiting opportunities until the child performs adequately
- C. Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment
- D. Setting strict rules with punishments for misbehavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment is the most effective strategy to promote positive behavior in children. This approach focuses on enhancing the child's skills and abilities while fostering a supportive and encouraging atmosphere. By empowering the child and surrounding them with positivity, they are more likely to exhibit positive behaviors as they feel competent, valued, and motivated. This strategy emphasizes support and reinforcement over punitive measures, leading to long-lasting behavioral improvements.
2. A nurse provides dietary teaching to the guardian of a school-age child with cystic fibrosis. Which statement should the nurse make?
- A. You should offer your child high-protein meals and snacks throughout the day.
- B. You should decrease your child's dietary fat intake to less than 10% of their caloric intake.
- C. You should restrict your child's calorie intake to 1,200 per day.
- D. You should give your child a multivitamin once weekly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. High-protein meals and snacks are essential for children with cystic fibrosis due to their increased nutritional needs. Protein helps in maintaining muscle mass and overall health in individuals with cystic fibrosis, making it crucial to include in their diet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreasing dietary fat intake to less than 10% of caloric intake, restricting calorie intake to 1,200 per day, and giving a multivitamin once weekly are not appropriate dietary recommendations for a child with cystic fibrosis.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
- C. Heart rate 130/min
- D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The provider should report the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid to the healthcare provider as it may indicate shunt malfunction or infection, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. Decreased urine output, a temperature of 37.5 degrees C, and a heart rate of 130/min are common postoperative findings and may not be directly related to shunt function. While these findings should still be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
4. The nurse is unsuccessful in inserting a nasogastric tube for a newborn client. The nurse suspects the newborn has esophageal atresia/tracheoesophageal (EA/TE) fistula. Which nursing action is appropriate while waiting for the healthcare provider to further assess the neonate?
- A. Position the newborn in a semi-Fowler position.
- B. Allow the newborn to stay in the nursery for observation.
- C. Offer the newborn pacifier for comfort.
- D. Wrap the newborn in blankets and place in an incubator.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Positioning the newborn in a semi-Fowler position is appropriate as it helps prevent aspiration in suspected EA/TE fistula. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the newborn in a semi-Fowler position promotes the drainage of secretions and reduces the risk of complications while awaiting further assessment by the healthcare provider.
5. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
- A. Nasal flaring
- B. WBC count of 11,300
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Abdominal distension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.
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