ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which statement made by the nurse demonstrates the best understanding of nonverbal communication?
- A. The patient's verbal and nonverbal communication is often different.
- B. When my patient responds to my question, I check for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication to help validate the response.
- C. If a patient is slumped in the chair, I can be sure he's angry or depressed.
- D. It's easier to understand verbal communication than nonverbal communication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication helps validate the patient's response.
2. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
3. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?
- A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
- B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
- C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
- D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.
4. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
- A. I've found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.
- B. I really enjoy journaling; it's my private time.
- C. I signed up for a yoga class this week.
- D. I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is maladaptive and can hinder the development of appropriate coping skills and access to support systems. It may indicate a lack of healthy coping strategies and social connections, which are important for managing stress effectively. Choice B is a positive coping strategy that promotes self-reflection and emotional expression. Choice C reflects a proactive approach to managing stress through physical activity. Choice D shows a willingness to seek professional help, which is a healthy coping mechanism.
5. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
- B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
- C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
- D. The client maintains a stable weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access