ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which statement made by the nurse demonstrates the best understanding of nonverbal communication?
- A. The patient's verbal and nonverbal communication is often different.
- B. When my patient responds to my question, I check for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication to help validate the response.
- C. If a patient is slumped in the chair, I can be sure he's angry or depressed.
- D. It's easier to understand verbal communication than nonverbal communication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication helps validate the patient's response.
2. When explaining suicide precautions to a client, what would be the best explanation?
- A. You need to control yourself. If you cannot, we will do it for you.
- B. This can seem embarrassing, but we want you to be safe.
- C. You will stay on these precautions for one week.
- D. When you feel you are safer, then we will not need to observe you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D provides a supportive and empowering explanation to the client on suicide precautions. It emphasizes the client's own sense of safety and control, indicating that the observation is temporary and can be removed when the client feels safer. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the client to actively participate in their own well-being, fostering a therapeutic relationship based on trust and collaboration.
3. When educating a client prescribed diazepam for anxiety, which statement indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
- A. I should take this medication only when I feel anxious.
- B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. I should avoid driving until I know how this medication affects me.
- D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients prescribed diazepam for anxiety should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can potentiate the side effects of diazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, increasing the risk of harm. Choice A is incorrect because diazepam is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when feeling anxious. Choice C is also important but not directly related to the medication itself. Choice D is dangerous advice; stopping diazepam abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.
4. A patient presents in the Emergency Department immediately following a shooting incident in a school where she has been teaching. There is no evidence of physical injury, but she appears very hyperactive and talkative. Which of these symptoms manifested by the patient are common initial biological responses to stress? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Constricted pupils
- B. Watery eyes
- C. Unusual food cravings
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When faced with stress, the body can react in various ways. Symptoms such as constricted pupils, increased heart rate, and increased respirations are commonly seen as initial biological responses to stress. In this case, the presence of constricted pupils is not typically associated with stress responses. Dilated pupils are more commonly linked to the Fight or Flight response. Watery eyes and increased heart rate are typical responses to stress. Unusual food cravings are not considered a typical biological response to stress.
5. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Short-term memory loss
- B. Headache
- C. Confusion
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can have side effects such as short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, particularly antipsychotics.
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