Nursing Elites

1. Which scenario would be an example of a child born with congenital insensitivity to pain?

• A. A child who does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli.
• B. A child who cries excessively and has a heightened response to pain.
• C. A child who experiences pain but has difficulty expressing it.
• D. A child who is sensitive to minor stimuli but has a delayed response to severe pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct scenario depicting a child with congenital insensitivity to pain is when the child does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli. This condition is characterized by the inability to feel and react to pain, resulting in a lack of typical responses such as crying or withdrawal when hurt. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a child with heightened pain sensitivity, opposite to the insensitivity seen in the condition. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests the child feels pain but struggles to communicate it, which is not the case with congenital insensitivity to pain. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a child who is sensitive to minor stimuli and has delayed responses to severe pain, which is not indicative of congenital insensitivity to pain.

2. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?

• A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
• B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
• C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
• D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.

3. A patient arrives at her follow-up appointment 1 month post-hysterectomy and complains to the nurse that her scars do not seem to be healing properly. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the scars are raised but still within the boundaries of the original incisions. The nurse tells the patient this kind of dysfunctional wound healing is called:

• A. Hypertrophic scarring
• B. Dehiscence
• C. Contracture
• D. A keloid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic scarring occurs when a scar is raised but remains within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the wound edges. Dehiscence refers to the separation of wound edges, while contracture involves the tightening or constriction of a scar, leading to limited mobility.

4. A 70-year-old patient is seen in the family practice clinic. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to prevent shingles?

• A. Zoster vaccine
• B. Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine
• C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
• D. Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zoster vaccine. The Zoster vaccine is recommended for the prevention of shingles in individuals aged 50 years and older. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. The vaccine helps reduce the risk of developing shingles and decreases the severity and duration of the illness if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is used to prevent HPV infections that can lead to cervical cancer and other cancers, and Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine is used to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.

5. How often should a patient be administered a tetanus toxoid?

• A. Every year
• B. Every 10 years
• C. Every 2 years
• D. Every 5 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tetanus toxoid should be administered every 10 years to ensure continued protection against tetanus infection. The correct answer is 'Every 10 years.' Choice A ('Every year') is incorrect as the frequency is too frequent. Choice C ('Every 2 years') is incorrect as it is too frequent for tetanus toxoid administration. Choice D ('Every 5 years') is incorrect as it does not align with the recommended interval for tetanus toxoid booster doses.

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