Nursing Elites

1. Which patient action indicates a good understanding of the nurse�s teaching about the use of an insulin pump?

• A. The patient programs the pump for an insulin bolus after eating
• B. The patient changes the location of the insertion site every week
• C. The patient takes the pump off at bedtime and starts it again each morning.
• D. The patient plans for a diet that is less flexible when using the insulin pump.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

2. The process by which registered nurses assess and judge the performance of peers against some predetermined standard is called:

• A. Group evaluation.
• B. Peer review.
• C. Forced distribution evaluation.
• D. Essay evaluation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peer review. Peer review is a process in which professional peers assess and judge the performance of their colleagues against predetermined standards. Essay evaluations involve describing an employee's performance through a detailed written narrative. Forced distribution evaluation is a method where employees are rated based on a fixed distribution, similar to grading on a curve. Group evaluation, on the other hand, involves managers comparing individual and group performance against organizational standards.

3. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?

• A. Hours of care provided
• B. Ancillary staff
• C. Procedures to be done
• D. Types of patients

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.

4. Which regulatory body mandates the provision of immunizations, especially for hepatitis B?

• A. American Nurses Association (ANA)
• B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
• C. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)
• D. State board of nursing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA mandates that the hepatitis B vaccine series must be offered to healthcare workers who are not immune to hepatitis. This requirement aims to protect healthcare workers from occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens, including the hepatitis B virus. The American Nurses Association (ANA) (Choice A) is a professional organization for nurses, not a regulatory body. The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) (Choice C) focuses on accrediting healthcare organizations for quality and safety, not mandating immunizations. The State board of nursing (Choice D) is responsible for regulating nursing practice within a specific state, not mandating immunizations.

5. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

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