Nursing Elites

1. Which patient action indicates a good understanding of the nurse�s teaching about the use of an insulin pump?

• A. The patient programs the pump for an insulin bolus after eating
• B. The patient changes the location of the insertion site every week
• C. The patient takes the pump off at bedtime and starts it again each morning.
• D. The patient plans for a diet that is less flexible when using the insulin pump.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

2. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

3. If a staff member does not respond to discipline, the manager must ______ employment.

• A. Terminate
• B. Confront
• C. Describe the staff nurse's behavior that violated the policy
• D. Determine the employee's awareness of the policy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an employee does not respond to disciplinary measures, termination may be necessary. This is a last resort for managers when other strategies to improve performance have failed. Terminating an employee means ending their employment with the organization. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the question specifically asks what action the manager must take when an employee does not respond to discipline. Confronting the employee, describing the behavior, or determining awareness of the policy are steps that may precede termination but are not the final action to be taken.

4. A nurse is planning an educational program for a group of older adults at a senior living center. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

• A. You should receive a pneumococcal vaccine when you are 65 years old.
• B. You should receive a shingles vaccine when you are 70 years old.
• C. You should receive a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• D. You should have an eye examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The CDC recommends a pneumococcal vaccine for all adults aged 65 years and older. This vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal disease. Choice B is incorrect as the shingles vaccine is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older, not specifically at 70 years. Choice C is incorrect because a tetanus booster is recommended every 10 years, not every 5 years. Choice D is incorrect as the general recommendation for eye examinations in older adults is annually, not every 2 years.

5. What is the primary role of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting?

• A. To enforce hospital policies
• B. To oversee patient care
• C. To manage the financial aspects of the unit
• D. To ensure efficient operation of the unit

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary role of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting is to ensure the efficient operation of the unit. While enforcing hospital policies and overseeing patient care are important aspects of their role, the main responsibility lies in ensuring the smooth and effective functioning of the unit. Managing the financial aspects of the unit is also crucial, but it is not the primary role of a nurse manager, as their focus is more on operational efficiency and quality of care.

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