ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering childhood vaccinations
- B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
- C. Routine screening for hypertension
- D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.
2. Which regulatory body mandates the provision of immunizations, especially for hepatitis B?
- A. American Nurses Association (ANA)
- B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
- C. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)
- D. State board of nursing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA mandates that the hepatitis B vaccine series must be offered to healthcare workers who are not immune to hepatitis. This requirement aims to protect healthcare workers from occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens, including the hepatitis B virus. The American Nurses Association (ANA) (Choice A) is a professional organization for nurses, not a regulatory body. The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) (Choice C) focuses on accrediting healthcare organizations for quality and safety, not mandating immunizations. The State board of nursing (Choice D) is responsible for regulating nursing practice within a specific state, not mandating immunizations.
3. An active 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is being seen in the endocrine clinic. Which finding may indicate the need for a change in therapy?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C level 6.2%
- B. Blood pressure 146/88 mmHg
- C. Heart rate at rest 58 beats/minute
- D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level 65 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a young adult with type 1 diabetes, a blood pressure of 146/88 mmHg may indicate the need for a change in therapy as it is above the recommended target levels. High blood pressure can increase the risk of cardiovascular complications in diabetic patients. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate the need for an immediate change in therapy. A Hemoglobin A1C level of 6.2% is generally considered good control for a diabetic patient, a resting heart rate of 58 beats/minute is normal for an active individual, and an HDL level of 65 mg/dL is considered to be in the desirable range for heart health.
4. A nurse is considering employment at a long-term care facility that has a functional nursing delivery system. Knowing this, the nurse could expect that:
- A. Each RN would coordinate care for a group of clients.
- B. One RN would pass meds for all clients on a unit.
- C. Each RN would deliver total care to an assigned group of clients.
- D. One RN, one LPN, and one unlicensed assistive personnel would share responsibility for a group of clients.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a functional nursing delivery system, tasks are divided among the staff based on their roles. One of these roles is medication administration, where one RN may pass medications for all clients on a unit. Option A is incorrect because coordinating care for a group of clients is more aligned with team nursing. Option C is incorrect as it describes total care nursing, not functional nursing. Option D is incorrect as it reflects team nursing with a mix of different roles sharing responsibility.
5. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?
- A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
- B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
- C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
- D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.
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