which of the following is not referred to as a withdrawal behavior except
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Practice B

1. Which of the following is NOT considered a withdrawal behavior?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Strategies.' Withdrawal behaviors are actions employees take to mentally escape the work environment. Turnover, stress, and punctuality are examples of withdrawal behaviors. Turnover refers to employees leaving the workplace, stress leads to disengagement, and lack of punctuality can indicate disinterest or withdrawal. 'Strategies' do not fit the definition of withdrawal behaviors, making it the correct answer.

2. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL (hypoglycemia) needs immediate attention. Hypoglycemia is an emergency situation that requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse effects such as seizures or loss of consciousness. Assessing and managing this patient first is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations requiring urgent intervention like severe hypoglycemia does. While a high hemoglobin A1C level (choice A), an abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result (choice C), and acute abdominal pain (choice D) are important issues, they do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life compared to severe hypoglycemia.

3. Under which category does a violation of the nurse practice act fall?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A violation of the nurse practice act falls under the category of tort. Tort refers to civil wrongs that cause harm or loss to another person, and a violation of the nurse practice act can result in a civil lawsuit against the nurse for negligence or malpractice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a violation of the nurse practice act does not fall under juvenile offenses, felonies, or misdemeanors, but rather under civil wrongs known as torts.

4. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

5. A recent ethical issue has resulted in uneasiness and discomfort for several nurses on a unit. The unit manager has decided to discuss the issues at the next team meeting. The situation has resulted in which of the following for some of the nurses?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, moral distress. Moral distress occurs when one knows the ethically correct action to take but feels constrained in their ability to take that action due to institutional, hierarchical, or other constraints. In this scenario, the nurses are experiencing uneasiness and discomfort due to an ethical issue, which aligns with the definition of moral distress. Choice A, moral suffering, is not the most appropriate term in this context as moral distress better describes the situation. Choice C, ethical dilemma, refers to a situation where a person is faced with two equally undesirable alternatives, which does not fully capture the nurses' current experience. Choice D, veracity, is unrelated to the nurses' situation and does not fit the context of the scenario.

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