which of the following is not referred to as a withdrawal behavior except
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Practice B

1. Which of the following is NOT considered a withdrawal behavior?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Strategies.' Withdrawal behaviors are actions employees take to mentally escape the work environment. Turnover, stress, and punctuality are examples of withdrawal behaviors. Turnover refers to employees leaving the workplace, stress leads to disengagement, and lack of punctuality can indicate disinterest or withdrawal. 'Strategies' do not fit the definition of withdrawal behaviors, making it the correct answer.

2. A nurse needs to know how to increase her power base. Which of the following are ways nurses can generate power as described by Umiker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'All of the above.' Umiker describes four ways to generate power: using words, through delivery, by listening, and through body language. Choice A is correct as it mentions using body language. Choice B is correct as it mentions listening. Choice C is correct as it pertains to using words effectively and avoiding clichés. Therefore, all the choices are ways nurses can generate power as described by Umiker.

3. When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client, what action should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Keep the feet close together.' When lifting a heavy object such as a bedside cabinet, it is essential to maintain a wide base of support by keeping the feet close together. This provides better stability and reduces the risk of injury. Choice B is incorrect because using the back muscles for lifting can lead to back strain and injury; it is recommended to use the legs instead. Choice C is incorrect as standing close to the cabinet may cause the nurse to lose balance and strain the back. Choice D is incorrect because bending at the waist increases the risk of back injury. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate action is to keep the feet close together to ensure stability and prevent self-injury.

4. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

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